MedCORE Reference

Cardiology

High-yield algorithms, recognition patterns, and exam traps — built for rapid last-minute recall.

Dr. Ahmad Zafar September 2026 16 Sections
This MedCORE is not a medical textbook. It is only designed for rapid, last-minute recall and should be treated like a high-yield cheat sheet, not a complete learning resource. Use it to memorize critical algorithms and recognition patterns.

Contents

  1. 1.1Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)
  2. 1.2Pericarditis
  3. 1.3Aortic Dissection
  4. 1.4Non-Cardiac Chest Pain
  5. 1.5Heart Failure
  6. 1.6Arrhythmias
  7. 1.7Shock (Cardio-Relevant)
  8. 1.8Cardiac Murmurs
  9. 1.9Congenital Heart Disease
  10. 1.10Vascular & Hypertension
  11. 1.11Infective Endocarditis
  12. 1.12Pulmonary Embolism
  13. 1.13Dyslipidemia & Cardiac Risk Scores
  14. 1.14Cardiology Buzzword Bank
  15. 1.15MCQ Practice Session (50 questions)
  16. 1.16Answer Key & Full Breakdown
Section 1.1

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

Core Concept

Includes: STEMI, NSTEMI, Unstable Angina (UA)

Pathology: Atherosclerotic plaque rupture → thrombus → myocardial ischemia/infarction

Recognition Pattern

If you see this in the stem → Think ACS:

  • "Crushing/pressure-like chest pain" + diaphoresis
  • Pain radiating to LEFT arm, jaw, or back
  • Pain NOT sharp, NOT reproducible on palpation
  • "Occurred at rest" or "woke patient from sleep"
  • Associated: nausea, dyspnea, sense of impending doom

ECG & Biomarker Differentiation

TypeECG ChangesTroponinKey Point
STEMIST elevation (≥1mm limb, ≥2mm chest) in anatomical distribution↑ ElevatedTransmural infarction
NSTEMIST depression OR T wave inversion↑ ElevatedSubendocardial infarction
Unstable AnginaNormal OR ST depressionNormalPre-infarction state

Anatomical Correlation


STEMI: First 10 Minutes Algorithm

TIME = MUSCLE! Every 30 min delay = 8% ↑ mortality
• ASPIRIN 300mg (chew) ← GIVE BEFORE ECG
• ECG within 10 minutes of arrival
• Oxygen ONLY if SpO₂ <90% (avoid if normal — causes vasoconstriction)
• Morphine for pain (delays platelet effect — use sparingly)
• Nitrates (SL or IV) UNLESS:
— RV infarction (ST↑ in V4R + hypotension + clear lungs)
— Systolic BP <90 mmHg
— Recent sildenafil use (48hrs)
• Dual antiplatelet: Aspirin + Clopidogrel/Ticagrelor
• Beta-blocker (oral, NOT IV unless severe HTN/tachycardia)
• Statin (high-intensity)
• Heparin (UFH or LMWH)
• Reperfusion decision NOW

Reperfusion Timing

MethodTimingDetails
PCI (Primary PCI)Door-to-balloon: <90 minPREFERRED. Best if within 12h of symptom onset.
Thrombolysis (tPA/TNK)Door-to-needle: <30 minOnly if PCI unavailable. Effective within 12h (ideally <3h).

Thrombolysis contraindications: Prior hemorrhagic stroke (ever), ischemic stroke <3 months, active bleeding, suspected aortic dissection.

Never in ACS
  • NSAIDs — ↑ mortality, ↑ re-infarction risk
  • Beta-blockers if: Cocaine-induced MI (unopposed alpha → worse vasospasm), acute decompensated HF, heart block (2nd/3rd degree), active bronchospasm
  • Thrombolysis if aortic dissection suspected (will kill patient)
Exam Traps
  • "Sharp, stabbing chest pain" → NOT ACS → Think pericarditis, pneumothorax, PE
  • Pain reproducible on palpation → NOT ACS → Costochondritis
  • Young patient + cocaine use → NEVER give beta-blockers (use benzodiazepines + nitrates + CCB)
  • Inferior MI + hypotension + clear lungs → RV infarction → Give FLUIDS, avoid nitrates
  • Aspirin allergy → Use clopidogrel 600mg loading dose
  • Post-MI fever (1-3 days) → Normal inflammatory response
  • Post-MI fever (weeks later) + friction rub → Dressler syndrome (autoimmune pericarditis)
Power Numbers
  • Troponin: rises 3-4h, peaks 24h, elevated up to 2 weeks
  • CK-MB: rises 3-6h, peaks 24h, normalizes 48-72h (better for re-infarction detection)
  • Aspirin reduces mortality by 23%
  • Beta-blockers reduce mortality by 20-25% (long-term)
  • ACE inhibitors reduce mortality by 20% (especially if EF <40%)
Section 1.2

Pericarditis

Core Concept

Inflammation of pericardial sac → sharp pleuritic chest pain improved by leaning forward

Recognition Pattern
  • "Sharp, stabbing chest pain" (NOT crushing)
  • "Worse when lying flat, better sitting forward"
  • "Pain worse with deep inspiration" (pleuritic)
  • Recent viral illness OR post-MI (1-3 weeks = Dressler)

Diagnostic Triad

  1. Clinical: Chest pain + friction rub
  2. ECG: Diffuse ST elevation + PR depression (NO reciprocal changes)
  3. Echo: Pericardial effusion (if present)

Physical Exam

Pericardial friction rub: High-pitched, scratchy, 3-component sound. Best heard at left sternal border, patient leaning forward. May be transient (come and go).

ECG Stages

StageECG Finding
1Diffuse ST elevation + PR depression
2Normalization
3T wave inversion
4Normalization
Key Difference from STEMI
  • STEMI: ST elevation in anatomical distribution + reciprocal ST depression
  • Pericarditis: Diffuse ST elevation (multiple leads) + PR depression + NO reciprocal changes

Treatment

First-line: NSAIDs (ibuprofen 600mg TID OR aspirin high-dose) + Colchicine (0.6mg BD)

Indications for admission: High fever (>38°C), large effusion, tamponade signs, immunosuppression, trauma history, anticoagulation use.

Exam Traps
  • Post-MI pericarditis timing: Early (1-3 days) = direct inflammation; Late (2-10 weeks) = Dressler syndrome (autoimmune)
  • Don't confuse with MI: Look for diffuse ST elevation, no troponin rise (may be mild ↑ if myopericarditis)
  • Uremic pericarditis: No fever, associated with renal failure
Section 1.3

Aortic Dissection

Core Concept

Tear in aortic intima → blood enters media → creates false lumen → SURGICAL EMERGENCY

Recognition Pattern

"Tearing/ripping chest or back pain" + any of:

  • Sudden onset (maximal intensity at onset)
  • Pulse or BP difference between arms (>20 mmHg)
  • Neurological deficits (stroke from carotid involvement)
  • Syncope (cardiac tamponade or shock)
  • New aortic regurgitation murmur

Classification

Stanford

  • Type A: Ascending aorta involved → IMMEDIATE SURGERY (mortality 1-2%/hour)
  • Type B: Descending aorta only → Medical management (beta-blockers)

DeBakey

  • Type I: Originates in ascending, extends to descending
  • Type II: Ascending aorta only
  • Type III: Descending aorta only

Risk Factors

Hypertension (most common), Marfan syndrome (tall, arachnodactyly), Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, bicuspid aortic valve, cocaine use, pregnancy (3rd trimester), trauma.

Investigations

First test if stable: CT angiography (gold standard). If unstable: Bedside echo (TTE/TEE). CXR: Widened mediastinum (>8cm), abnormal aortic contour.

DO NOT give thrombolysis if dissection suspected!

Management

Type A (Ascending):

  1. Immediate cardiothoracic surgery consult
  2. BP control: IV beta-blocker (esmolol/labetalol) FIRST
  3. Then vasodilator (nitroprusside) — NEVER vasodilator alone
  4. Target SBP 100-120 mmHg, HR <60
  5. Emergency surgical repair

Type B (Descending):

Medical management UNLESS: malperfusion (renal, mesenteric, limb), rupture, uncontrolled pain/HTN, progression of dissection. Treatment: Beta-blockers + pain control.

Never Do This
  • Give thrombolytics if dissection suspected
  • Give vasodilators BEFORE beta-blockade (reflex tachycardia worsens shear stress)
  • Delay surgery in Type A for imaging
Exam Traps
  • "BP difference in arms" → Classic but only present 30-40% of time
  • Inferior MI pattern on ECG → May be due to dissection involving RCA ostium
  • Pericardial effusion → May indicate rupture/tamponade
  • Horner syndrome → Dissection involving sympathetic chain
Power Numbers
  • Type A mortality: 1-2% per hour untreated
  • Overall mortality: 50% in 48 hours if untreated
  • Chronic Type B 5-year survival: 60%
Section 1.4

Non-Cardiac Chest Pain

Quick Differential Table

ConditionPain QualityKey FeaturesFirst Test
CostochondritisSharp, stabbingReproducible on palpation, localized tendernessClinical diagnosis
GERDBurningAfter meals, relieved by antacidsClinical, PPI trial
Esophageal spasmSqueezingMay mimic ACS, triggered by swallowingBarium swallow, manometry
PneumoniaPleuriticFever, cough, cracklesCXR
PneumothoraxSharp, pleuriticSudden onset, ↓ breath soundsCXR (upright)
Pulmonary embolismPleuriticSudden dyspnea, risk factors (DVT, surgery)D-dimer → CT-PA
Anxiety/PanicTightnessPalpitations, hyperventilation, paresthesiasDiagnosis of exclusion
Red Flags — Rule Out Cardiac First

Even if pain seems "atypical," consider ACS if:

  • Age >40 with cardiac risk factors
  • Diabetes (silent ischemia common)
  • Associated diaphoresis or dyspnea
  • Radiation to arm/jaw
Section 1.5

Heart Failure

Core Concept

Heart's inability to meet metabolic demands → fluid overload + low cardiac output

Recognition Pattern
  • Orthopnea (dyspnea lying flat) → "Sleeps on 3 pillows"
  • PND (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea) → Wakes up gasping
  • Bilateral leg edema (pitting)
  • Elevated JVP
  • Pulmonary crackles/rales
  • Hepatomegaly (right HF)

Physical Exam Findings

Types Comparison

FeatureHFrEF (Systolic)HFpEF (Diastolic)
Ejection Fraction<40%≥50% (preserved)
PathophysiologyWeak contraction (dilated heart)Stiff ventricle (can't relax)
Physical ExamS3 gallop (ventricular filling)S4 gallop (atrial contraction against stiff ventricle)
Patient ProfilePost-MI, dilated cardiomyopathyElderly, hypertensive, diabetic women
CXRCardiomegaly (↑ heart size)Normal heart size
Mortality RxACE-I/ARB + BB + MRA + SGLT2iNo proven mortality benefit
Symptom RxDiuretics for volumeDiuretics + BP control

Investigations

  1. BNP/NT-proBNP: <100 = HF unlikely, >500 = HF likely
  2. Echocardiography: Defines HFrEF vs HFpEF, valvular disease
  3. ECG: Look for prior MI, LVH, arrhythmias
  4. CXR: Cardiomegaly, cephalization, Kerley B lines, effusions, pulmonary edema

CXR signs of pulmonary edema (ABCDE): Alveolar edema (bat-wing), B lines (Kerley B), Cardiomegaly (>0.5), Dilated upper lobe vessels (cephalization), Effusions (pleural).


Management

HFrEF — Mortality Reduction (Memorize: "ABCD")

A — ACE inhibitor (or ARB if cough) — Start low, titrate up
B — Beta-blocker (carvedilol, metoprolol, bisoprolol) — Start AFTER stabilization
C — (Aldosterone antagonist) Spironolactone/Eplerenone if EF <35%
D — (Diuretics) Loop diuretics for symptoms ONLY

NEW ADDITIONS:
— SGLT2 inhibitors (dapagliflozin, empagliflozin) — ↓ mortality 30%
— ARNI (sacubitril-valsartan) — Better than ACE-I alone if EF <40%
— Ivabradine (if HR >70 on max BB, sinus rhythm)
— CRT-D (biventricular pacemaker + defibrillator) if EF <35%, QRS >150ms

HFpEF — Symptom Control

Acute Decompensated HF

  1. Sit patient upright (↓ preload)
  2. Oxygen if hypoxic
  3. IV loop diuretic (furosemide) — aggressive dosing
  4. Nitrates (if BP normal/high) — ↓ preload
  5. Consider non-invasive ventilation (CPAP/BiPAP)
  6. Inotropes (dobutamine) if cardiogenic shock
Contraindicated in HF
  • NSAIDs: Cause fluid retention, ↑ mortality
  • Thiazolidinediones (pioglitazone): Fluid retention
  • Verapamil/Diltiazem: Negative inotropes (worsen HFrEF)
  • Non-DHP CCBs: Use only in HFpEF if needed
  • Metformin: Relative contraindication if severe HF (lactic acidosis risk)
Exam Traps
  • BNP ↑ in renal failure: Use clinical judgment
  • Beta-blocker initiation: NEVER start during acute decompensation (wait until euvolemic)
  • Loop diuretic resistance: Double the dose OR switch to IV OR add thiazide
  • Hyponatremia in HF: Marker of poor prognosis, consider fluid restriction
  • ACE-I cough: Switch to ARB (10% incidence)
  • Spironolactone: Monitor K⁺ (hyperkalemia risk), don't use if CrCl <30
Power Numbers
  • Normal EF: 55-70% | HFrEF: <40% | Mild: 40-49% | HFpEF: ≥50%
  • BNP <100: HF unlikely | BNP >500: HF very likely
Section 1.6

Arrhythmias

Atrial Fibrillation

ECG Signature

ECG: Irregularly irregular rhythm + No P waves + Narrow QRS (usually)

"Irregularly irregular" = AFib until proven otherwise

Management Algorithm

Step 1: RATE or RHYTHM control?
├─ Unstable (hypotension, angina, pulmonary edema) → CARDIOVERSION
└─ Stable → Rate control first-line

Step 2: RATE CONTROL (Goal: HR 60-100 at rest)
├─ Beta-blocker (metoprolol) — First choice
├─ Non-DHP CCB (diltiazem, verapamil) — If BB contraindicated
└─ Digoxin — Only if sedentary/HF

Step 3: ANTICOAGULATION (CHA₂DS₂-VASc score)

CHA₂DS₂-VASc Score

CriterionPoints
CHF1
Hypertension1
Age ≥752
Diabetes1
Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism2
Vascular disease (MI, PAD, aortic plaque)1
Age 65-741
Sex (Female)1

Score ≥2 (men) or ≥3 (women) → Anticoagulate (DOAC preferred over warfarin)

Cardioversion Rules


SVT / AVNRT

ECG: Narrow QRS tachycardia + Sudden onset/offset + Rate 150-250

Management (stable): Vagal maneuvers first → Adenosine 6mg rapid IV push (↑ to 12mg ×2 if needed; warn patient: "chest tightness, sense of doom for 10 seconds"; contraindicated in asthma) → If recurrent: BB or non-DHP CCB → Definitive: Catheter ablation.

If UNSTABLE → Synchronized cardioversion.


Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)

ECG: Wide QRS (>120ms) + Rate >100

Assume wide-complex tachycardia is VT until proven otherwise (safer)

Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib)

ECG: Chaotic, no organized QRS. Management: Immediate CPR + Defibrillation.


Heart Blocks

TypeECGManagement
1st DegreeProlonged PR (>200ms), all P waves conductedObservation only
2nd° Mobitz I (Wenckebach)Progressive PR lengthening until dropped QRSUsually benign, observe
2nd° Mobitz IIFixed PR, sudden dropped QRSHIGH RISK → Pacemaker
3rd Degree (Complete)P waves and QRS completely dissociatedPacemaker immediately

Key distinction: Mobitz I: Usually AV node → Benign. Mobitz II: Usually His-Purkinje → Dangerous, high risk of progressing to complete block.

Exam Traps
  • "Irregularly irregular" → Always think AFib first
  • Wide QRS tachycardia in known heart disease → VT until proven otherwise
  • Adenosine causes brief asystole → This is normal, warn patient
  • AFib + WPW (delta wave) → NEVER use AV nodal blockers (BB, CCB, digoxin, adenosine) → V-fib risk
  • Digoxin toxicity → Causes almost any arrhythmia, classic: bidirectional VT
  • Torsades de Pointes (polymorphic VT) → Treat with IV magnesium, not amiodarone
Power Numbers
  • AFib stroke risk: 5× increased
  • SVT typical rate: 150-250 bpm
  • VT definition: ≥3 consecutive ventricular beats at rate >100
  • PR normal: 120-200ms | QRS normal: <120ms
Section 1.7

Shock (Cardio-Relevant)

Shock Type Comparison

TypeClinical FeaturesHemodynamicsManagement
CardiogenicHypotension, cold/clammy, ↑JVP, crackles↓CO, ↑PCWP, ↑SVRInotropes (dobutamine), treat MI, minimal fluids
ObstructiveTamponade: Beck's triad; Tension PTX: tracheal deviation, ↓breath sounds↓CO, ↑CVPPericardiocentesis / Needle decompression
SepticWarm skin (early), fever/hypothermia, AMS↓SVR, ↑CO (early)IV fluids 30mL/kg + antibiotics + norepinephrine
HypovolemicCold/clammy, ↓JVP, tachycardia↓CO, ↓CVP, ↑SVRAggressive IV fluids, blood products

Recognition Patterns

Cardiogenic Shock

"Post-MI patient, cold extremities, lung crackles, BP 80/50." JVP elevated. Key: Pump failure → fluid backing up into lungs.

Cardiac Tamponade (Beck's Triad)

Additional: Pulsus paradoxus (SBP drop >10mmHg on inspiration), electrical alternans on ECG, echo: diastolic collapse of RA/RV.

Tension Pneumothorax

Sudden onset, unilateral ↓breath sounds, tracheal deviation AWAY, hypotension + ↑JVP. DON'T wait for CXR → Clinical diagnosis → Immediate needle decompression.

Management Principles

Cardiogenic

  1. Identify and treat cause (MI → reperfusion)
  2. Inotropes: Dobutamine (1st-line) or Milrinone
  3. Vasopressors: Norepinephrine if profound hypotension
  4. AVOID excessive fluids
  5. Mechanical support: IABP, Impella, ECMO

Tamponade

  • Urgent pericardiocentesis (subxiphoid approach)
  • Fluid bolus may temporize (↑filling pressure)

Tension PTX

  • Immediate needle decompression (2nd ICS, midclavicular)
  • Followed by chest tube insertion
Exam Traps
  • Cardiogenic shock + clear lungs → Think RV infarction (give fluids, NOT inotropes initially)
  • Post-cardiac surgery + tamponade → Clotted blood doesn't move → May need surgical drainage
  • Pulsus paradoxus also seen in: Severe asthma, COPD, PE (not specific to tamponade)
  • Obstructive shock can mimic cardiogenic → Look for distended neck veins in BOTH
Section 1.8

Cardiac Murmurs

Systolic Murmurs

Aortic Stenosis (AS)

Sound: Harsh crescendo-decrescendo ("ejection murmur"). Location: Right 2nd ICS. Radiation: To carotids. Timing: Midsystolic.

Classic Triad (Severe AS) — SAD mnemonic: Syncope (exertional), Angina (exertional), Dyspnea (HF symptoms).

Physical Exam: Delayed carotid upstroke ("pulsus parvus et tardus"), narrow pulse pressure, S4 gallop, paradoxical splitting of S2.

Causes: Senile calcific (>70yo), bicuspid valve (younger), rheumatic fever.

Severity: Valve area <1.0 cm² = severe | Mean gradient >40 mmHg = severe.

Mgmt: Valve replacement (surgical or TAVR). Once symptoms develop, survival 2-3 years without surgery.

Mitral Regurgitation (MR)

Sound: Holosystolic (blowing). Location: Apex. Radiation: To axilla.

Causes: Acute — papillary muscle rupture (post-MI), endocarditis, chordae rupture. Chronic — MVP, rheumatic, dilated cardiomyopathy.

Physical Exam: Displaced apex, S3 gallop, hyperdynamic apex.

Mgmt: Acute severe MR → Emergency surgery. Chronic → Surgery if symptomatic or EF <60%.

Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)

Sound: Mid-systolic click ± late systolic murmur. Key Feature: Click-murmur complex.

Maneuvers: Valsalva/standing → click earlier, murmur longer (↓venous return). Squatting/leg raise → click later, murmur shorter (↑venous return).

Associated with: Marfan, Ehlers-Danlos, thin young females. Usually benign.

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

Sound: Harsh holosystolic at LLSB. Paradox: Small VSD = louder murmur (high-velocity jet). Large VSD = softer murmur + HF symptoms.

Mgmt: Small → Observe. Large → Surgical repair.


Diastolic Murmurs

Aortic Regurgitation (AR)

Sound: High-pitched, blowing, early diastolic. Location: Left 3rd-4th ICS. Best heard: Patient sitting forward, breath held in expiration.

Chronic AR signs: Wide pulse pressure (>60), bounding "water-hammer" pulses (Corrigan), head bobbing (de Musset), capillary pulsations (Quincke), pistol-shot femorals (Traube).

Causes: Chronic — bicuspid, rheumatic, connective tissue. Acute — endocarditis, dissection, trauma → SURGICAL EMERGENCY.

Mitral Stenosis (MS)

Sound: Low-pitched rumbling, diastolic. Location: Apex. Best heard: Left lateral position, bell.

Cause: Almost always rheumatic heart disease (history 10-20 years prior).

Physical Exam: Loud S1, opening snap, diastolic rumble, accentuation with exercise.

Complications: AFib (LA enlargement), pulmonary hypertension, thromboembolism.

Mgmt: Mild → Medical (rate control if AF, anticoagulation). Severe → Balloon valvuloplasty or surgery.


Murmur Quick Reference

MurmurTimingLocationRadiationKey Feature
ASSystolicR 2nd ICSCarotidsCrescendo-decrescendo, delayed carotid pulse
MRHolosystolicApexAxillaBlowing
MVPMid-late systolicApex—Click before murmur
VSDHolosystolicLLSB—Loud if small defect
AREarly diastolicL 3rd ICS—High-pitched, blowing, wide pulse pressure
MSDiastolicApex—Opening snap, rumbling, loud S1
TRHolosystolicLLSB—↑ with inspiration (Carvallo sign)

Maneuver Effects on Murmurs

Increase with Valsalva/Standing (↓ preload):

  • HOCM
  • MVP (prolapse occurs earlier)

Decrease with Valsalva/Standing:

  • AS, MR, AR (most murmurs)

Increase with Squatting/Hand grip (↑ afterload):

  • MR, AR, VSD (↑ regurgitant flow)

Decrease with Hand grip:

  • AS (↑ afterload → ↓ forward flow)
  • HOCM

Increase with Inspiration (↑ venous return to RV):

  • Right-sided murmurs (TR, PR, PS)
Section 1.9

Congenital Heart Disease

Cyanotic Heart Diseases (5 T's)

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) — Most Common Cyanotic CHD

The 4 Defects:

  1. VSD (ventricular septal defect)
  2. Overriding aorta
  3. Pulmonary stenosis (RVOT obstruction)
  4. RV hypertrophy

Presentation: Cyanosis (degree depends on severity of PS). "Tet spells" — crying/feeding → ↑O₂ demand → ↑cyanosis → irritability → more crying (vicious cycle). Squatting posture (↑SVR → ↓R→L shunt → ↑pulmonary flow).

CXR: "Boot-shaped heart" (upturned apex from RVH). ECG: RVH (right axis deviation).

Management of Tet Spell

1. Knee-chest position (↑SVR)
2. Oxygen
3. Morphine (↓agitation)
4. IV fluids (↑preload)
5. Phenylephrine (↑SVR)

Definitive: Surgical repair (6-12 months)

Other Cyanotic Defects: Transposition of Great Arteries (most common cyanotic in newborns, "egg-on-string" CXR), Truncus arteriosus, Tricuspid atresia, TAPVR.


Acyanotic Heart Diseases (L→R Shunts)

Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)

Key Feature: Fixed splitting of S2. S2 normally splits with inspiration; in ASD: split is wide and FIXED (doesn't change with breathing). Mechanism: ↑RA volume → delays RV emptying → delayed P2.

Murmur: Systolic ejection murmur at pulmonic area (↑flow across normal pulmonary valve).

Types: Ostium secundum (most common, 70%) | Ostium primum (associated with Down syndrome).

Complications: Atrial arrhythmias, paradoxical embolism.

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) — Most Common CHD Overall

Murmur: Harsh holosystolic at LLSB. Paradox: Smaller defect = louder murmur.

Small VSD (Roger disease): Loud murmur, no symptoms, many close spontaneously.

Large VSD: Softer murmur, HF symptoms, Eisenmenger syndrome risk.

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

Murmur: Continuous "machinery" murmur (systole + diastole). Location: Left infraclavicular. Associated: Bounding pulses, wide pulse pressure.

Risk factors: Prematurity, high altitude, maternal rubella.

Mgmt: Indomethacin/ibuprofen (closes PDA in neonates by inhibiting PGE2) | Surgical ligation if medical fails.

Exam Traps
  • Fixed split S2 → Always ASD until proven otherwise
  • "Boot-shaped heart" on CXR → TOF
  • Continuous murmur → Think PDA (but also venous hum, AV fistula)
  • Squatting improves symptoms → TOF (↑SVR → ↓R→L shunt)
  • Eisenmenger syndrome: Chronic L→R shunt → pulmonary HTN → shunt reverses R→L → cyanosis. Once developed: CONTRAINDICATION to repair.
  • Down syndrome associations: ASD (primum), VSD, AVSD
Section 1.10

Vascular & Hypertension

Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)

Core Concept

Atherosclerotic narrowing of peripheral arteries (usually lower extremity)

Classic: Intermittent claudication — calf pain with walking, relieved by rest. Progression: Asymptomatic → Claudication → Rest pain → Tissue loss (ulcers, gangrene).

Physical Exam: Diminished/absent pulses, cool extremity, hair loss, shiny atrophic skin, pallor on elevation, rubor on dependency.

Diagnosis — Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI):

Mgmt: Smoking cessation (MOST IMPORTANT) + statin + BP/diabetes control → Antiplatelet (aspirin/clopidogrel) → Exercise rehabilitation → Cilostazol (if lifestyle fails; contraindicated in HF) → Revascularization if severe.

Critical limb ischemia (rest pain, ulcers, gangrene) → Urgent revascularization

Hypertension

Definition: ≥140/90 mmHg (general) | ≥130/80 mmHg (diabetes, CKD, age >65)

Classification

StageBP Range
Stage 1130-139 / 80-89
Stage 2≥140/90
Hypertensive urgency>180/120, no end-organ damage
Hypertensive emergency>180/120 + end-organ damage

First-Line Antihypertensives (ABC-D)

A — ACE inhibitors / ARBs
Best for: DM, CKD, HF, post-MI | Avoid: Pregnancy, bilateral RAS, hyperkalemia

B — Beta-blockers
Best for: Post-MI, HF, angina, tachyarrhythmias | Avoid: Asthma, heart block, PVD

C — Calcium channel blockers
DHP (amlodipine): Isolated systolic HTN | Non-DHP (diltiazem/verapamil): ↓HR, AF | Avoid non-DHP in HFrEF

D — Diuretics (Thiazides)
Best for: Volume-dependent HTN, elderly, Black patients | Monitor: K⁺, Na⁺, uric acid

Hypertensive Emergency

End-organ damage: CNS (encephalopathy, ICH), Cardiac (ACS, pulmonary edema), Renal (AKI), Vascular (dissection).

Mgmt: IV antihypertensive (reduce BP 10-20% in first hour) — Nicardipine/clevidipine, Labetalol, Nitroprusside (avoid in renal failure). Monitor in ICU. Avoid rapid BP reduction (except aortic dissection).

Specific situations:

Exam Traps
  • "Bilateral leg claudication" → Think spinal stenosis (neurogenic), not PAD
  • ABI >1.4 → Non-compressible (diabetes) → Use toe-brachial index
  • ACE-I in bilateral renal artery stenosis → Acute renal failure
  • Hypertensive urgency (no symptoms) → Oral meds, NO IV needed
  • White coat hypertension → Home BP monitoring or 24h ambulatory BP
  • Thiazides ineffective if CrCl <30 → Use loop diuretic instead
Section 1.11

Infective Endocarditis

Core Concept

Infection of endocardial surface → vegetations (platelet-fibrin + bacteria) on valve leaflets

Acute: S. aureus on normal valve | Subacute: S. viridans on abnormal/prosthetic valve

Recognition Pattern
  • "Fever + new murmur" (especially regurgitant)
  • "IVDU + fever + tricuspid valve" → Right-sided endocarditis (S. aureus)
  • "Prosthetic valve + fever" → Early (<60d): S. epidermidis, Late: S. viridans
  • "Fever + Osler nodes / Janeway lesions / splinter hemorrhages"
  • "S. bovis bacteremia" → ALWAYS order colonoscopy (colon cancer link!)

Modified Duke Criteria

Definite IE = 2 Major OR 1 Major + 3 Minor OR 5 Minor

Major: (1) Positive blood cultures with typical organisms ×2 (2) Positive echo (vegetation/abscess/dehiscence) or new regurgitation.

Minor: Predisposition, fever ≥38°C, vascular phenomena (Janeway), immunologic (Osler/Roth), positive cultures not meeting major.

Organism Guide

ScenarioOrganismKey Point
Native (acute)S. aureusMost common overall
Native (subacute)S. viridansPost-dental
IVDUS. aureusTricuspid, septic pulmonary emboli
Prosthetic earlyS. epidermidisBiofilm former
Colon cancer linkS. bovisAlways colonoscopy!
Culture-negativeHACEK groupProlonged incubation

Treatment

Empiric: Vancomycin + Gentamicin (add Rifampin if prosthetic).

Prophylaxis (before dental): Amoxicillin 2g PO 1h before. Who: Prosthetic valves, prior IE, unrepaired cyanotic CHD, transplant with valvulopathy.

Exam Traps
  • S. bovis → ALWAYS colonoscopy (colon cancer)
  • IVDU + lung nodules on CXR → Septic pulmonary emboli (right-sided IE)
  • Culture-negative → Prior antibiotics or HACEK organisms
  • Libman-Sacks → SLE, sterile vegetations, no antibiotics
Power Numbers
  • Blood cultures: 3 sets from 3 different sites before antibiotics
  • S. aureus IE mortality: 25-40%
  • Native valve Rx: 4-6 weeks | Prosthetic: 6+ weeks
Section 1.12

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

Core Concept

Thrombus (usually from DVT) embolizes to pulmonary vasculature → V/Q mismatch → hypoxemia → RV strain

Virchow's Triad: (1) Stasis (2) Endothelial injury (3) Hypercoagulability (cancer, OCP, Factor V Leiden)

Recognition Pattern
  • "Sudden dyspnea + pleuritic chest pain" (most common)
  • "Post-surgical + sudden SOB + unilateral leg swelling"
  • "Hypoxemia NOT improving with O₂"
  • "Syncope + hypotension" → Massive PE

Wells Score & Diagnostic Algorithm

CriteriaPoints
Clinical signs of DVT3
PE most likely diagnosis3
Heart rate >1001.5
Immobilization/surgery in prior 4 weeks1.5
Previous DVT/PE1.5
Hemoptysis1
Active cancer1

Score ≤4: D-dimer → if negative, PE excluded. Score >4: CTPA directly (gold standard).

ECG & Imaging

Treatment

Anticoagulation: Initial: LMWH, UFH, or fondaparinux → Long-term: DOAC preferred or warfarin (INR 2-3).

Duration: Provoked: 3 months | Unprovoked: ≥3 months/indefinite | Cancer: indefinite.

Massive PE (hemodynamically unstable):

Exam Traps
  • Negative D-dimer + low Wells → PE ruled out
  • Positive D-dimer is NOT diagnostic (elevated in cancer, pregnancy, surgery, age >50)
  • Fat embolism → Post long-bone fracture (24-72h), petechiae + confusion + dyspnea
  • Amniotic fluid embolism → Labor/C-section, DIC + cardiovascular collapse
  • NEVER delay anticoagulation while awaiting imaging if high suspicion
Power Numbers
  • DVT source: >95% from lower extremity deep veins
  • D-dimer sensitivity >95%, specificity ~50%
  • Massive PE mortality untreated: >50%; with thrombolysis: ~25%
  • Age-adjusted D-dimer cutoff: Age × 10 (if >50)
Section 1.13

Dyslipidemia & Cardiac Risk Scores

Core Concept

Elevated LDL = causal risk factor for ASCVD. Treatment guided by overall CV risk, not just lipid numbers.

Lipid Panel

ComponentDesirableBorderlineHigh Risk
Total Cholesterol<200200-239≥240
LDL<100130-159≥160
HDL≥60 (protective)40-59<40 (risk)
Triglycerides<150150-199≥200

Friedewald: LDL = Total − HDL − (TG/5) | Invalid if TG >400

Risk Stratification Scores

Statin Therapy

4 Major Statin Benefit Groups:

  1. Clinical ASCVD (prior MI/stroke/PAD) → High-intensity statin
  2. LDL ≥190 mg/dL → High-intensity statin (NO risk calculator needed)
  3. Diabetes, age 40-75, LDL 70-189 → Moderate (high if risk ≥7.5%)
  4. 10-year ASCVD risk ≥7.5%, age 40-75 → Moderate-to-high intensity
IntensityLDL ↓Examples
High≥50%Atorvastatin 40-80mg, Rosuvastatin 20-40mg
Moderate30-49%Atorvastatin 10-20mg, Rosuvastatin 5-10mg, Simvastatin 20-40mg
Low<30%Simvastatin 10mg, Pravastatin 10-20mg

Add-ons if not at goal: Ezetimibe (↓LDL 15-20%) → PCSK9i (↓LDL 50-60%) → Bempedoic acid (statin-intolerant).

TG ≥500: Fibrates FIRST (prevent pancreatitis) | Icosapent ethyl (EPA) ↓ CV events.

Exam Traps
  • LDL ≥190 → Always high-intensity statin, NO risk calculator needed
  • Statin + gemfibrozil → ↑ Rhabdomyolysis (fenofibrate is safer)
  • Statins in pregnancy → ABSOLUTELY CONTRAINDICATED (Category X)
  • Xanthomas + corneal arcus in young patient → Familial hypercholesterolemia
  • CAC score = 0 → Can defer statin in borderline risk
  • Friedewald invalid if TG >400 → Direct LDL measurement needed
Power Numbers
  • Every 1 mmol/L ↓ LDL → 22% ↓ major vascular events
  • Statin NNT (secondary prevention): ~20-30 over 5 years
  • TG ≥500 → Pancreatitis risk (treat urgently)
Section 1.14

Cardiology Buzzword Bank

If you see this phrase → Think this diagnosis:

"Crushing chest pain + diaphoresis"→ACS
"Tearing/ripping chest pain"→Aortic dissection
"Sharp pain, better sitting forward"→Pericarditis
"Irregularly irregular rhythm"→Atrial fibrillation
"Water-hammer pulse"→Aortic regurgitation
"Boot-shaped heart"→Tetralogy of Fallot
"Machinery murmur"→PDA
"Opening snap + diastolic rumble"→Mitral stenosis
"Fixed split S2"→ASD
"Squatting improves symptoms"→TOF
"Beck's triad"→Cardiac tamponade
"Pulsus paradoxus"→Tamponade or severe asthma
"Claudication relieved by rest"→PAD
"Bilateral leg edema + orthopnea + PND"→Heart failure
"S3 gallop"→HFrEF (systolic dysfunction)
"S4 gallop"→HFpEF or LVH (diastolic dysfunction)

Cardiology Power Numbers Summary

ParameterValue
Normal EF55-70%
HFrEFEF <40%
Severe ASValve area <1 cm², gradient >40 mmHg
Troponin rise3-4 hours post-MI
Door-to-balloon (STEMI)<90 minutes
Door-to-needle (tPA)<30 minutes
ABI normal1.0-1.4
ABI PAD<0.9
CHA₂DS₂-VASc threshold≥2 (men) or ≥3 (women) → Anticoagulate
Hypertensive emergency>180/120 + end-organ damage
Normal PR interval120-200 ms
Normal QRS<120 ms
VT definition≥3 consecutive ventricular beats at >100 bpm
Section 1.15

MCQ Practice Session

Q1 A1: A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department 2 hours after the sudden onset of crushing substernal chest pain with heavy diaphoresis. He has hypertension and a 25-pack-year smoking history. His pulse is 90/min and blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V2-V4 with reciprocal ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF. The physician has just walked into the room. Which of the following is the FIRST action?
Q2 A2: A 68-year-old man with compensated heart failure and hypertension is found to have atrial fibrillation on an ECG obtained during a routine visit. His ventricular rate is 84/min and he is hemodynamically stable. His CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is calculated as 3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q3 A3: A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic because of 3 days of sharp chest pain that is worse when lying flat and improves when sitting forward. He recovered from a flu-like illness 1 week ago. His temperature is 37.8°C, pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg. Auscultation reveals a pericardial friction rub. An ECG shows diffuse ST elevation with PR depression and no reciprocal changes; troponin I is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q4 A4: A 60-year-old man with a prior anterior myocardial infarction and known congestive heart failure presents with sudden palpitations. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex tachycardia at 140/min. His blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg and he is alert and speaking in full sentences. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Q5 A5: A 62-year-old man with an inferior STEMI (ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF) develops hypotension to 80/56 mmHg during his ED stay. The jugular venous pulse is elevated at 10 cm above the sternal angle, and the lung fields are clear to auscultation. An ECG taken with right-sided leads shows ST elevation in V4R. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Q6 A6: A 26-year-old man is referred to cardiology after a murmur is heard during a pre-employment physical examination. Auscultation reveals a widely split S2 that does NOT vary with respiration, and a soft systolic ejection murmur at the pulmonic area. He is completely asymptomatic. Echocardiography shows an ostium secundum defect with right ventricular volume overload. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q7 A7: A 57-year-old woman with chronic hypertension comes to the emergency department because of the sudden onset of tearing interscapular back pain that was maximal in intensity at onset. Her blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg in the right arm and 158/94 mmHg in the left arm. Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. She is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate first test?
Q8 A8: A 55-year-old man with newly diagnosed HFrEF (ejection fraction 30%) is being started on guideline-directed medical therapy. He is euvolemic with potassium 4.1 mEq/L and creatinine 1.0 mg/dL. Which of the following medications reduce mortality in this patient? (Select all that apply)
Q9 A9: A 60-year-old woman admitted with acute decompensated heart failure and significant pulmonary congestion is started on metoprolol on the first hospital day. Over the next 24 hours her oxygen requirement increases and the crackles extend beyond the bases. Her blood pressure is stable. What was the outcome of the beta-blocker initiation?
Q10 A10: A 29-year-old man comes to the emergency department with chest pain that began 2 hours after using cocaine at a party. He is agitated, with blood pressure 172/100 mmHg and an ECG showing ST elevation in lead aVF. He is given benzodiazepines and nitrates. Which of the following additional medications is contraindicated?
Q11 A11: A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency department 3 hours after the sudden onset of crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to his left arm and neck. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and a 40-pack-year smoking history. His temperature is 36.8°C, pulse is 92/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 88/58 mmHg. The jugular venous pulse is elevated at 9 cm above the sternal angle. Auscultation of the lungs reveals clear breath sounds bilaterally. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q12 A12: A 62-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 90 minutes after the onset of crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to her left jaw. She is diaphoretic and appears anxious. She has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her pulse is 90/min and blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg; oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V2-V4. The nearest PCI-capable center reports an expected door-to-balloon time of 55 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial medication?
Q13 A13: A 27-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of chest pain that began 1 hour after he used cocaine at a party. He is agitated and diaphoretic. His temperature is 37.4°C, pulse is 118/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 165/95 mmHg. An ECG shows ST elevation in lead aVF. He is treated with aspirin, benzodiazepines, and nitrates, but his pain persists. Which of the following additional medications is contraindicated in this patient?
Q14 A14: A 61-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 weeks after an anterior myocardial infarction for routine follow-up. Since yesterday he has had a low-grade fever and pleuritic chest pain that is worse when lying flat and improves when sitting forward. His temperature is 37.9°C, pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg. Auscultation reveals a scratchy pericardial friction rub at the left sternal border. An ECG shows diffuse ST elevation without reciprocal changes, and troponin I is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q15 A15: A 66-year-old man is diagnosed with an anterior STEMI at a rural facility. Primary PCI is unavailable, and transfer to a PCI-capable center would take 4 hours. The on-call physician plans fibrinolytic therapy and reviews his history: hypertension, an ischemic stroke 8 months ago with full recovery, a hemorrhagic stroke 6 years ago, and a dental extraction 3 days ago. His BP is 165/95 mmHg. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis in this patient?
Q16 A16: A 54-year-old man with hypertension comes to the emergency department because of chest pain that began while watching television 20 minutes ago and is still present. The pain is pressure-like but he denies radiation. His pulse is 96/min and blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg. An ECG shows ST depression in leads V4-V6. Initial troponin I is 0.9 ng/mL (normal <0.04); a repeat at 3 hours rises to 2.4 ng/mL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q17 A17: A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic because of 2 days of sharp chest pain that improves when he leans forward and worsens when he lies flat. He recovered from a flu-like illness last week. His temperature is 37.6°C, pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg. Auscultation reveals a pericardial friction rub. An ECG shows diffuse ST elevation with PR depression and no reciprocal changes; troponin I is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Q18 A18: A 68-year-old man with end-stage renal disease on maintenance hemodialysis comes to the emergency department because of chest pain. He is afebrile. Auscultation reveals a pericardial friction rub. Laboratory studies show urea nitrogen 92 mg/dL and creatinine 8.4 mg/dL. Chest X-ray shows a normal cardiac silhouette without effusion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q19 A19: A 63-year-old man with longstanding poorly controlled hypertension comes to the emergency department because of sudden onset of tearing back pain that was maximal in intensity at onset. His blood pressure is 140/70 mmHg in the right arm and 170/95 mmHg in the left arm. Cardiac auscultation reveals a new early diastolic blowing murmur at the left sternal border. Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?
Q20 A20: The patient from the previous question undergoes CT angiography, which confirms a Type A dissection involving the ascending aorta. Cardiothoracic surgery is consulted for emergency repair. In the interim, the intensivist begins hemodynamic control. Which of the following must be administered BEFORE any vasodilator infusion?
Q21 A21: A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of sharp left-sided chest pain that began yesterday after a gym session. The pain is localized to the 4th left costochondral junction and is fully reproducible by pressing on the spot. She denies dyspnea, cough, or fever. Her temperature is 37°C, pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 114/70 mmHg. Lungs are clear and the ECG is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q22 A22: A 70-year-old woman with hypertension and type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic because of 3 months of progressive exertional dyspnea and two-pillow orthopnea. Her pulse is 84/min and regular, and blood pressure is 148/86 mmHg. Auscultation reveals an S4 gallop and bibasilar crackles. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 58% with increased LV wall thickness and no regional wall motion abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Q23 A23: A 58-year-old man with nonischemic dilated cardiomyopathy is followed in the heart failure clinic. His ejection fraction is 26%, and he has NYHA class II symptoms. He is euvolemic on lisinopril 20mg daily and carvedilol 25mg twice daily. Potassium is 4.2 mEq/L and creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following medication additions has been proven to reduce mortality in this patient?
Q24 A24: A 62-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with acute decompensated heart failure. He has orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, JVP elevated at 12 cm, bilateral pitting edema to the mid-shin, and bibasilar crackles. He has never taken a beta-blocker. His pulse is 102/min and blood pressure is 132/84 mmHg; oxygen saturation is 91% on 4L nasal cannula. Which of the following interventions should NOT be initiated until he is euvolemic?
Q25 A25: A 64-year-old man with HFrEF (EF 30%) is seen in follow-up for persistent congestion. Despite furosemide 80mg orally twice daily for the past week, he has JVP elevated at 12 cm and edema to the mid-shin. Sodium is 138 mEq/L, potassium 3.9 mEq/L, creatinine 1.3 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his diuretic management?
Q26 A26: A 66-year-old man is found to have atrial fibrillation on an ECG obtained at a community health fair. His ventricular rate is 88/min and he is hemodynamically stable. His history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and a prior anterior MI. His CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is 4. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term management?
Q27 A27: A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of the sudden onset of palpitations 1 hour ago. Her pulse is 186/min and regular with a narrow QRS complex on the monitor. Blood pressure is 82/50 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air, and auscultation reveals bilateral crackles with an elevated JVP. After supplemental oxygen, which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Q28 A28: A 32-year-old man has recurrent episodes of regular, narrow-complex tachycardia with sudden onset and offset. Each episode terminates with IV adenosine in the emergency department. Despite metoprolol, episodes now recur weekly and interfere with his work. He is otherwise healthy with a normal echocardiogram. Which of the following is the most definitive treatment?
Q29 A29: A 68-year-old man with a prior inferior myocardial infarction comes to the emergency department because of palpitations. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex tachycardia at 130/min. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg and he is alert and speaking in full sentences. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Q30 A30: A 54-year-old woman receiving haloperidol for agitation and ondansetron for nausea has a witnessed syncopal episode on the ward. The rhythm strip shows polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with progressively changing QRS axis; the QTc measures 560 ms. Potassium is 3.4 mEq/L and magnesium is 1.9 mg/dL. She is pulseless for 8 seconds before the rhythm terminates. Which of the following is the first-line IV drug to prevent recurrence?
Q31 A31: A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a syncopal episode while climbing stairs. His pulse is 38/min and regular, and blood pressure is 106/64 mmHg. An ECG shows P waves and QRS complexes occurring completely independently of each other; the QRS is 110 ms and wide. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Q32 A32: A 59-year-old man, 2 days after an anterior myocardial infarction, is found hypotensive on rounds. His blood pressure is 78/52 mmHg, pulse 110/min, and extremities are cold and clammy. Auscultation reveals bilateral pulmonary crackles and the JVP is elevated at 12 cm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis and its core management?
Q33 A33: A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a stab wound to the right anterior chest. His blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and pulse is 128/min; oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. Examination of the right chest reveals absent breath sounds and hyperresonance to percussion. The trachea is deviated to the left and the neck veins are distended. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Q34 A34: A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic because of two episodes of syncope while climbing stairs and exertional chest tightness over the past month. His pulse is 72/min and regular, and blood pressure is 138/84 mmHg. Auscultation reveals a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right 2nd ICS radiating to the carotids, a slow-rising delayed carotid upstroke, a soft S2, and an S4. Echocardiography shows an aortic valve area of 0.8cm² with a mean gradient of 46 mmHg and EF 55%. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Q35 A35: A 45-year-old man is referred for evaluation of a blood pressure recorded as 150/45 mmHg. He describes a pounding sensation in his neck with each heartbeat. On examination, the carotid pulses are bounding and rapidly collapsing ("water-hammer" pulses), and there is rhythmic head bobbing. A high-pitched, blowing early diastolic murmur is heard at the left 3rd-4th ICS, best appreciated with the patient sitting forward in held expiration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q36 A36: A 38-year-old woman who had acute rheumatic fever at age 15 comes to the clinic because of progressive exertional dyspnea and palpitations over the past year. Auscultation reveals a loud S1, an opening snap early in diastole, and a low-pitched rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, best heard in the left lateral position with the bell of the stethoscope. The rhythm is irregularly irregular. Which of the following is the most likely valve lesion and its most likely complication?
Q37 A37: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the pediatric clinic because of bluish discoloration of the lips during crying episodes, which his mother relieves by holding him in a squatting position. He was born at term and his weight is below the 5th percentile. Chest X-ray shows a boot-shaped heart. During the visit, he becomes deeply cyanotic and hyperpneic while crying. Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing this episode?
Q38 A38: A 29-year-old man is found to have a murmur during a routine pre-employment examination. Auscultation reveals a widely split S2 that does NOT vary with respiration, and a soft systolic ejection murmur at the pulmonic area. Echocardiography confirms an ostium secundum atrial septal defect with right ventricular volume overload. Which of the following complications is this defect predisposed to?
Q39 A39: A neonate born at 29 weeks' gestation is noted to have a continuous "machinery"-type murmur at the left infraclavicular area, bounding peripheral pulses, and a wide pulse pressure. The infant is otherwise stable on room air. Echocardiography confirms a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?
Q40 A40: A 66-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history comes to the clinic because of right calf pain that begins after walking two blocks and resolves within minutes of rest. Examination of the right lower extremity shows shiny, atrophic skin with hair loss and an absent dorsalis pedis pulse. The ankle-brachial index on the right is 0.68. In addition to antiplatelet therapy and a statin, which of the following is the MOST important intervention?
Q41 A41: A 55-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 206/124 mmHg on three separate measurements during a clinic visit. He reports a mild frontal headache. He denies chest pain, dyspnea, and focal neurological symptoms. Fundoscopy is normal, creatinine is 1.0 mg/dL, urinalysis is benign, and the ECG shows no ischemic changes. Which of the following is the correct classification and management?
Q42 A42: A 61-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her family because of severe headache, vomiting, and confusion since waking this morning. Her blood pressure is 208/122 mmHg. Fundoscopy reveals papilledema. She has no focal neurological deficits, and a non-contrast CT head shows no hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Q43 A43: A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and hypertension is reviewed after his creatinine rose from 1.2 to 1.6 mg/dL. Magnetic resonance angiography shows 75% stenosis of BOTH renal arteries. His medications are metformin, atorvastatin, aspirin, and amlodipine. Which of the following medication classes should be AVOIDED in this patient?
Q44 A44: A 31-year-old man who injects heroin daily comes to the emergency department because of 5 days of fever and chills. His temperature is 39.2°C and pulse is 108/min. Auscultation reveals a new holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border that becomes louder with inspiration. Chest X-ray shows multiple peripheral nodules scattered in both lung fields. Blood cultures are drawn. Which of the following is the most likely organism?
Q45 A45: A 63-year-old man with subacute infective endocarditis has blood cultures growing Streptococcus bovis. He is afebrile after 5 days of IV penicillin, and a repeat echocardiogram shows his mitral vegetation has shrunk from 12mm to 9mm. Which of the following additional evaluations is MANDATORY in this patient?
Q46 A46: A 48-year-old woman completed 3 months of apixaban for a pulmonary embolism that developed without any provoking factor — no recent surgery, travel, malignancy, or estrogen exposure. She has no history of bleeding and takes no antiplatelet drugs. She asks whether she can stop treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate duration plan?
Q47 A47: A 70-year-old man develops the sudden onset of dyspnea on postoperative day 5 after a hip replacement. His blood pressure is 82/54 mmHg, pulse is 128/min, and oxygen saturation is 88% on 6L. The JVP is elevated with clear lung fields. CT pulmonary angiography shows large bilateral central pulmonary emboli. He has no contraindications to fibrinolysis. Which of the following is the first-line treatment?
Q48 A48: A 42-year-old man comes for a fasting lipid panel: total cholesterol 320 mg/dL, LDL 235 mg/dL, HDL 44 mg/dL, triglycerides 160 mg/dL. On examination, he has tendon xanthomas over the Achilles tendons and a corneal arcus. His father had a "heart attack at age 40." He has never taken a statin and has no ASCVD history. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Q49 A49: A 24-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a fast, regular heartbeat that began suddenly 30 minutes ago while she was watching television. She has had similar self-terminating episodes in the past. Her pulse is 184/min and regular, and blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg. An ECG shows a narrow-complex tachycardia with no visible P waves. Carotid sinus massage fails to terminate the rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Q50 A50: A 28-year-old man comes for evaluation after an episode of near-syncope while climbing stairs. His father died suddenly at age 35. His pulse is 78/min and regular, and blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg. Auscultation reveals a harsh systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border that becomes LOUDER when he stands and during Valsalva maneuver, and SOFTER with squatting. The murmur does not radiate to the carotids, and the carotid upstroke is brisk. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Section 1.16

Answer Key & Full Breakdown

Q1 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Aspirin 300mg chewed

Concept: STEMI first-10-minutes algorithm Recall

Why C: TIME = MUSCLE. Chewed aspirin cuts mortality by 23% and is given BEFORE the ECG — drug first, then diagnostics.

Discriminator: crushing pain + anterior ST elevation = STEMI in progress.

A) ECGMandatory within 10 minutes, but aspirin goes first — that is the exam point
B) TroponinDiagnostic support only; waiting for it delays reperfusion decisions
D) MorphineAnalgesia, but delays platelet effect of antiplatelets — use sparingly

Trap: Sequence trap — running diagnostics before giving the mortality drug.

Future alert: Suspected STEMI → aspirin 300mg chewed precedes everything, even the ECG.

Q2 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Anticoagulation (DOAC or warfarin)

Concept: CHA₂DS₂-VASc-driven anticoagulation in AFib Recall

Why B: Score ≥2 in men mandates anticoagulation; DOAC is preferred over warfarin. AFib carries a 5× stroke risk.

A) AspirinInadequate stroke protection at this score — not an alternative to anticoagulation
C) ObservationIgnores a clear anticoagulation indication
D) CardioversionPatient is stable; if done >48h or unknown onset it needs TEE or 3 weeks of anticoagulation first

Trap: Undertreatment trap — offering aspirin where a DOAC is indicated.

Future alert: CHA₂DS₂-VASc ≥2 (men) / ≥3 (women) → anticoagulate.

Q3 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Pericarditis

Concept: Pericarditis ECG vs STEMI Interpretation

Why B: Sharp pain better sitting forward + diffuse ST elevation + PR depression + NO reciprocal changes + normal troponin = the pericarditis signature.

Discriminator: PR depression with diffuse (non-anatomical) ST elevation.

A) STEMIST elevation in ONE anatomical territory WITH reciprocal depression; troponin rises 3-4h
C) DissectionTearing pain, pulse/BP differential, widened mediastinum — none present
D) PEPleuritic pain with hypoxia and risk factors, not diffuse ST elevation with PR depression

Trap: Recognition trap — any ST elevation reflexively labelled STEMI.

Future alert: Diffuse ST↑ + PR↓ + no reciprocal changes = pericarditis, not STEMI.

Q4 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Assume VT, give amiodarone

Concept: Wide-complex tachycardia rule Analysis

Why C: In known heart disease, wide-complex tachycardia is VT until proven otherwise — treating as VT is the safe default. Stable VT → amiodarone 150mg IV over 10 min.

A) AdenosineAn SVT tool; useless in VT and misleading as a diagnostic trial here
B) VerapamilDANGEROUS — non-DHP CCB in VT can cause hemodynamic collapse
D) ObservationUntreated VT can degenerate into V-fib

Trap: Misclassification trap — hoping the wide complex is just SVT with aberrancy.

Future alert: Wide QRS + structural heart disease = VT. Amiodarone, not verapamil.

Q5 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) IV fluids

Concept: RV infarction complicating inferior MI Analysis

Why B: Inferior MI + hypotension + elevated JVP + CLEAR lungs = RV infarction. The RV is preload-dependent — volume loading restores output.

Discriminator: hypotension with clear lungs — the pump works, the right side fails.

A) DiureticsDrop preload — exactly the wrong direction in RV infarction
C) InotropesSecond-line here; volume first, inotropes if fluids fail
D) NitratesForbidden — venodilation kills preload; check V4R before any nitrate in inferior MI

Trap: Treatment trap — treating the ECG territory instead of the hemodynamics.

Future alert: Inferior MI + hypotension + clear lungs → fluids first, nitrates never.

Q6 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) ASD

Concept: Fixed split S2 buzzword Recall

Why B: ↑RA volume delays RV emptying → delayed P2 that does not vary with respiration — fixed splitting is pathognomonic for ASD.

A) VSDHarsh holosystolic murmur at LLSB, not a fixed split
C) PDAContinuous "machinery" murmur, left infraclavicular
D) PSDelay P2 but the split stays physiologic, not fixed

Trap: Buzzword trap — fixed split has one owner.

Future alert: Fixed split S2 = ASD until proven otherwise (secundum >70%).

Q7 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) CT angiography

Concept: Aortic dissection diagnostic pathway Interpretation

Why C: Tearing pain + BP differential between arms = dissection; in a STABLE patient CT angiography is the gold standard.

A) ECGMay show inferior changes from RCA ostium involvement — misleading, not diagnostic
B) TroponinMay be normal in dissection; cannot exclude it
D) EchoBedside TTE/TEE is for the UNSTABLE patient, not the stable workup

Trap: Next-step trap — reaching for troponins in a dissection story.

Future alert: Stable + dissection suspicion → CTA. Unstable → bedside echo and the OR.

Q8 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A, B, C and E (multi-select)

Concept: HFrEF mortality-reduction drugs ("ABCD" + SGLT2i) Recall

Why: The mortality quartet in HFrEF is ACEi/ARB, evidence-based beta-blockers, aldosterone antagonists (EF <35%), and SGLT2 inhibitors (↓ mortality ~30%).

D) DigoxinSymptom control and rate control only — NO mortality benefit

Trap: Select-all trap — digoxin rides along in every HFrEF list but never earns a mortality claim.

Future alert: Mortality drugs = ACEi/ARB + BB + MRA + SGLT2i. Everything else is symptom care.

Q9 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Worsened

Concept: Beta-blocker initiation timing in HF Interpretation

Why B: Beta-blockers are negative inotropes — starting one during acute decompensation worsens congestion and can precipitate shock. Wait until euvolemic.

A) ImprovedThe long-term mortality benefit does not apply during acute decompensation
C) No changeA negative inotrope on a failing, congested ventricle has real consequences

Trap: Timing trap — right drug, wrong moment.

Future alert: Never INITIATE a beta-blocker in acute decompensated HF — stabilize first.

Q10 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Beta-blocker

Concept: Cocaine-induced MI pharmacology Interpretation

Why B: Beta-blockade leaves alpha-mediated vasoconstriction unopposed → worsened coronary vasospasm and hypertension.

A) AspirinAppropriate — standard ACS care
C) BenzodiazepinesFirst-line — they calm the sympathetic drive
D) NitratesAppropriate — vasodilation counters the spasm

Trap: Substance-specific trap — applying routine ACS care without adjusting for cocaine.

Future alert: Cocaine MI → benzodiazepines + nitrates + CCB. Beta-blockers never.

Q11 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) IV isotonic fluids

Concept: RV infarction — preload-dependent failure Analysis

Why B: Inferior STEMI (II, III, aVF) with reciprocal I/aVL changes, hypotension, raised JVP and CLEAR lungs is RV infarction until proven otherwise (confirm ST↑ in V4R). The RV fails as a volume conduit — output depends on preload, so fluids restore cardiac output.

Discriminator: hypotension + congested neck veins + clear lungs.

B) FluidsCorrect — volume loading is first-line in RV infarct
A) NitratesDrop preload — can precipitate profound collapse; contraindicated here
C) FurosemideSame preload crime as nitrates, worse — the lungs are already clear
D) Morphine and observeAnalgesia without hemodynamic rescue; delays definitive care
E) CardioversionNo arrhythmia to cardiovert — the problem is preload, not rhythm

Trap: Treatment trap — reflexively treating any MI with nitrates.

Future alert: Before nitrates in ANY inferior MI, check V4R and the lungs.

Q12 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Aspirin 300mg chewed

Concept: STEMI first-10-minutes sequencing Recall

Why B: Aspirin is the first drug in the algorithm — chewed for buccal absorption, given before the ECG is even repeated. 23% mortality reduction.

A) MorphineRelieves pain but delays antiplatelet absorption — after aspirin, sparingly
C) ClopidogrelPart of dual antiplatelet therapy but follows aspirin, not before it
D) NitroglycerinAfter aspirin; and only if BP adequate and no RV infarct
E) HeparinAnticoagulation follows antiplatelet loading in the sequence

Trap: Order trap — all five are "given in STEMI," the exam tests the ORDER.

Future alert: First drug in STEMI = chewed aspirin. Everything else lines up behind it.

Q13 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: E) Metoprolol

Concept: Cocaine-induced MI — unopposed alpha Analysis

Why E is contraindicated: Beta-blockade removes beta-2 vasodilation, leaving alpha vasoconstriction unopposed → worsening coronary spasm and BP.

A) AspirinCorrect therapy — standard ACS antiplatelet
B) LorazepamFirst-line — cuts sympathetic drive, often resolves pain and hypertension alone
C) NitroglycerinCorrect — counters coronary vasospasm
D) VerapamilAcceptable alternative if benzos + nitrates fail — CCB, no unopposed alpha problem

Trap: Recognition trap — young patient + MI + drug history; missing the cocaine context makes BB look routine.

Future alert: Cocaine + chest pain → benzos + nitrates (+CCB). Beta-blockers are the forbidden fruit.

Q14 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Dressler syndrome

Concept: Post-MI pericarditis timing Interpretation

Why B: Weeks (2-10) after MI + fever + pleuritic pain + friction rub = autoimmune (Dressler) pericarditis. Early post-MI pericarditis is 1-3 days and direct inflammation.

Discriminator: the calendar — 3 weeks = late = autoimmune.

A) Early pericarditisWrong time window — that is 1-3 days post-MI
C) Recurrent MIWould show new ST changes and rising troponin, not a friction rub at 3 weeks
D) EndocarditisFever + new murmur + vegetation story, not pleuritic pain with a rub
E) PneumoniaCough, sputum, consolidation — not a pericardial rub

Trap: Timing trap — both post-MI pericarditids exist; the calendar separates them.

Future alert: Post-MI + weeks + friction rub = Dressler (NSAIDs + colchicine).

Q15 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Hemorrhagic stroke 6 years ago

Concept: Thrombolysis contraindications Recall

Why C: Any PRIOR hemorrhagic stroke (ever) is an absolute contraindication — re-bleeding risk is prohibitive.

A) BP 165/95Elevated but below the treatment-refractory >180/110 threshold — treat BP, not a contraindication
B) Ischemic stroke 8 monthsRelative concern only within <3 months — 8 months clears it
D) Dental extractionMinor bleeding risk, not a contraindication
E) Aspirin useHe is supposed to get aspirin anyway

Trap: List trap — exam swaps "ischemic <3 months" for "hemorrhagic ever" and hopes you blur the two.

Future alert: Hemorrhagic stroke EVER = never thrombolyze. Ischemic stroke = only <3 months blocks.

Q16 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) NSTEMI

Concept: ACS troponin-based differentiation Analysis

Why B: Ischemic rest pain + ST depression + ELEVATED troponin = subendocardial infarction = NSTEMI. UA is the identical picture with NORMAL troponin.

A) UAThat was the diagnosis one troponin ago — elevation upgrades it to NSTEMI
C) STEMIRequires ST ELEVATION; depression + troponin is NSTEMI territory
D) PericarditisDiffuse ST↑, PR↓, no troponin rise
E) TakotsuboStress trigger + apical ballooning on echo, not this pattern

Trap: Definition trap — UA vs NSTEMI is ONLY the troponin.

Future alert: ST depression + troponin↑ = NSTEMI. Same picture + normal troponin = UA.

Q17 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) NSAIDs + colchicine

Concept: Acute pericarditis treatment Recall

Why A: First-line is NSAIDs (ibuprofen 600mg TID or high-dose aspirin) + colchicine 0.6mg BD for 3 months minimum — colchicine cuts recurrence by 50%.

B) Heparin + PCIThat is the STEMI pathway — this is pericarditis (no troponin, diffuse ST↑ + PR↓)
C) SteroidsReserved for refractory/autoimmune cases — first-line steroids increase recurrence
D) AntibioticsPurulent pericarditis only — this is post-viral
E) DigoxinNo role in pericarditis

Trap: Treatment trap — the ECG scares you into the cath lab.

Future alert: Pericarditis Rx = NSAID + colchicine, 3 months, not steroids.

Q18 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Uremic pericarditis

Concept: Pericarditis etiology by context Interpretation

Why B: ESRD + friction rub + NO fever is the uremic signature — it classically lacks the fever of infectious causes.

A) ViralPost-viral prodrome + fever expected
C) DresslerNeeds a prior MI weeks ago
D) TB pericarditisChronic course, systemic symptoms, high-risk epidemiology
E) TamponadeBeck's triad (hypotension, ↑JVP, muffled sounds) — a complication, not the diagnosis here

Trap: Context trap — the dialysis chair was the diagnosis.

Future alert: Friction rub + afebrile + renal failure = uremic pericarditis.

Q19 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) CT angiography of the chest

Concept: Dissection recognition + imaging choice Analysis

Why B: Tearing pain maximal at onset + inter-arm BP differential >20mmHg + new AR murmur + widened mediastinum = dissection. Stable patient → CTA is the gold standard.

A) TroponinsMay be normal; cannot exclude dissection — a normal troponin here is a trap
C) TTE in labBedside echo is the UNSTABLE pathway; he is stable
D) D-dimerUseless — dissection and many comorbidities elevate it; not a dissection rule-out tool
E) AortographyHistorical gold standard — invasive, replaced by CTA

Trap: Anchor trap — anchoring on "chest pain" and ordering cardiac enzymes.

Future alert: Tearing pain + BP differential → CTA. Troponin will betray you.

Q20 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) IV esmolol or labetalol

Concept: Type A dissection management sequence Analysis

Why A: Beta-blockade FIRST to cut dP/dt (shear stress), THEN vasodilator. Target SBP 100-120, HR <60, and emergency surgical repair.

B) Nitroprusside firstReflex tachycardia increases shear stress — vasodilator only AFTER beta-blockade
C) NifedipineUncontrollable sublingual hypotension — not for dissection
D) HeparinAnticoagulating a dissection invites fatal hemorrhage
E) ThrombolysisLethal — the never-do of this section

Trap: Sequence trap — the drugs are right, the order is fatal.

Future alert: Type A: BB first, vasodilator second, surgeon third. Never delay surgery for imaging.

Q21 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Costochondritis — clinical diagnosis

Concept: Musculoskeletal chest pain Interpretation

Why A: Sharp, localized, REPRODUCIBLE ON PALPATION after exertion with normal vitals and ECG — the textbook costochondritis cluster. Reproducibility excludes ACS.

B) PENeeds dyspnea/hypoxia/risk factors — none present
C) PneumothoraxSudden onset + ↓breath sounds — exam is normal
D) GERDBurning, postprandial, NOT reproducible on palpation
E) MyocarditisWould have troponin rise, arrhythmias, systemic symptoms

Trap: Over-investigation trap — ordering tests for a clinical diagnosis.

Future alert: Reproducible on palpation = chest wall. Do not burn a D-dimer on it.

Q22 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) HFpEF — diuretics, BP control, SGLT2 inhibitors

Concept: HFpEF vs HFrEF classification and treatment Analysis

Why B: EF ≥50% + S4 + elderly hypertensive diabetic woman = HFpEF. Symptom control: diuretics for volume, BP <130/80, SGLT2i (recent benefit); NO proven mortality benefit from neurohormonal blockade.

A) HFrEF regimenWrong EF category — the mortality quartet is for EF <40%
C) DigoxinNo mortality benefit anywhere in HF
D) Proven mortality for HFpEFThe trap — ACEi/BB/MRA lack mortality proof in HFpEF
E) No treatmentSymptoms are real — treat congestion and comorbidities

Trap: Category trap — treating HFpEF with the HFrEF mortality quartet and claiming benefit.

Future alert: EF ≥50% + S4 + elderly female = HFpEF. Diuretics + BP + SGLT2i.

Q23 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Spironolactone

Concept: HFrEF mortality add-on therapy Analysis

Why B: EF <35% + symptoms despite ACEi + BB = add aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone/eplerenone) — mortality benefit. Monitor K⁺; avoid if CrCl <30.

A) DigoxinSymptom/rate control only — no mortality benefit
C) AmlodipineNeutral DHP — safe but no mortality claim
D) FurosemideSymptom-only diuresis — the "D" is for symptoms ONLY
E) AmiodaroneArrhythmia suppression, no mortality benefit, toxic load

Trap: Benefit trap — three of these drugs are routinely given; only one claims mortality.

Future alert: EF <35% + already on ACEi/BB → next mortality drug is the MRA.

Q24 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Carvedilol

Concept: Beta-blocker initiation timing Analysis

Why B (as the NOT-to-start): Initiating a negative inotrope while acutely congested worsens decompensation — wait until euvolemic.

A) IV loop diureticCornerstone of acute decompensation management
C) Sit upright↓preload, immediate relief
D) OxygenIf hypoxic — supportive mainstay
E) Nitrates↓preload if BP permits

Trap: Timing trap — the best chronic drug is the worst acute drug.

Future alert: BB in HF: start when EUVOLEMIC, never during the acute admission.

Q25 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Double the dose, switch to IV, or add a thiazide

Concept: Loop diuretic resistance Interpretation

Why A: The documented options for loop resistance are exactly three: double the oral dose, switch to IV, or add a thiazide for sequential nephron blockade.

B) Stop diureticsHe is congested — stopping worsens it
C) Add digoxinInotrope/rate drug, not a diuretic strategy
D) HydralazineVasodilator for afterload, not volume
E) MRA as primary diureticWeak diuretic; it is a mortality drug, not a volume rescue

Trap: Escalation trap — adding new drug classes instead of fixing the failing one.

Future alert: Loop not working? Double, IV, or thiazide — in that order of thinking.

Q26 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Anticoagulation with a DOAC

Concept: CHA₂DS₂-VASc application Analysis

Why B: Score 4 (HTN + DM + vascular disease + age 65-74) → anticoagulate; DOAC preferred over warfarin. He is stable → rate control alongside, but anticoagulation is the scored decision.

A) AspirinNot a substitute at score 4
C) Rate control onlyRate control without anticoagulation leaves the 5× stroke risk open
D) Immediate cardioversionStable + unknown onset → needs TEE or 3 weeks anticoagulation first
E) Watchful waitingDenies a mandatory indication

Trap: Undertreatment trap — rate control feels like treatment but the stroke clock keeps ticking.

Future alert: Count the score first; the anticoagulation decision follows mechanically.

Q27 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Synchronized cardioversion

Concept: Unstable tachyarrhythmia management Analysis

Why C: Hypotension + pulmonary edema = UNSTABLE. Unstable anything-tachycardia → synchronized cardioversion, no drug delays.

A) AdenosineA stable-patient drug — shocks first when unstable
B) Vagal maneuversStable SVT only
D) IV metoprololDrug delay in an unstable patient — and may worsen hemodynamics
E) AmiodaroneFor stable VT/wide-complex, not the unstable SVT pathway

Trap: Pharmacology trap — reaching for the drug ladder when the patient already failed hemodynamically.

Future alert: Unstable + tachycardic = synchronized shock. Adenosine is for the sitting-up-and-talking patient.

Q28 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Catheter ablation

Concept: Definitive SVT therapy Recall

Why B: Recurrent AVNRT despite medical therapy → catheter ablation is curative — it eliminates the accessory/reentrant pathway.

A) Chronic digoxinSecond-line rate agent, not curative
C) AmiodaroneToxic load for a benign rhythm — disproportionate
D) ICDFor malignant ventricular arrhythmias, not AVNRT
E) Exercise restrictionNot evidence-based management

Trap: Palliation trap — mistaking repeated adenosine rescue for a treatment plan.

Future alert: Recurrent SVT + failed drugs = ablation. It is curative.

Q29 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) IV amiodarone — treat as VT

Concept: Wide-complex rule in structural heart disease Analysis

Why C: Prior MI + wide-complex tachycardia = VT until proven otherwise. He is STABLE → antiarrhythmic (amiodarone 150mg IV over 10 min), not shocks.

A) AdenosineSVT trial — wrong pathway in known heart disease
B) VerapamilPotentially lethal in VT — classic kill option
D) Digoxin loadSlow, and digoxin toxicity itself causes VT
E) Carotid massageSVT diagnostic maneuver — irrelevant in VT

Trap: Stability trap — he is stable, so drugs not shock; and the wide complex must be read as VT.

Future alert: Stable wide-complex + old MI = amiodarone. Unstable = synchronized shock.

Q30 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) IV magnesium sulfate

Concept: Torsades de Pointes management Recall

Why B: Polymorphic VT with prolonged QT (drugs here: haloperidol, ondansetron) = torsades → IV magnesium is first-line, even with normal magnesium levels.

A) AmiodaroneWORSENS QT prolongation — the classic wrong answer
C) LidocaineVentricular ectopy drug, not the torsades answer
D) AdenosineNarrow-complex SVT tool
E) ProcainamideAlso prolongs QT — contraindicated here

Trap: Reflex trap — "VT = amiodarone" fails precisely here; the QT flips the answer.

Future alert: Polymorphic VT + long QT = magnesium. Amiodarone would fuel the fire.

Q31 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Permanent pacemaker immediately

Concept: Complete heart block management Interpretation

Why B: Complete AV dissociation + syncope = 3rd-degree block → pacemaker immediately. This is not a watch-and-wait rhythm.

A) AtropineA bridge at best; unreliable in complete block — the answer is the device
C) AmiodaroneSuppresses escape rhythms — catastrophic
D) Carotid massageDiagnostic maneuver, not treatment; risky in the elderly
E) ReassuranceMobitz II and 3rd-degree block progress to asystole

Trap: Severity trap — lumping Mobitz I (benign) with Mobitz II and 3rd degree (pacemaker).

Future alert: Mobitz II or complete block → pacemaker. Observation is the wrong answer.

Q32 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Cardiogenic shock — inotropes and urgent reperfusion, avoid excessive fluids

Concept: Cardiogenic shock after MI Analysis

Why A: Post-MI + hypotension + cold extremities + crackles + ↑JVP = pump failure. Treat the cause (reperfusion), inotropes (dobutamine), and AVOID fluid loading — the lungs are already drowning.

B) SepticNo infection source; warm skin would be the septic tell, he is cold
C) HypovolemicHypovolemia shows ↓JVP and clear lungs — the opposite
D) TamponadeNeeds Beck's triad + pulsus paradoxus + electrical alternans
E) PEWould need hypoxia, risk factors, right-heart strain signs

Trap: Fluid reflex trap — "shock = fluids" fails in cardiogenic shock.

Future alert: Cold + wet + post-MI = inotropes and reperfusion. Fluids drown the lungs.

Q33 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Immediate needle decompression, right 2nd ICS midclavicular

Concept: Tension pneumothorax — clinical diagnosis Analysis

Why C: Hypotension + distended neck veins + unilateral absent breath sounds + tracheal deviation AWAY = tension pneumothorax. It is a CLINICAL diagnosis — decompress before any imaging.

A) CXR firstKills the patient — never wait for film
B) CT chestEven slower — same fatal error dressed up
D) Chest tube firstCorrect definitive step but AFTER needle decompression
E) IntubationPositive pressure WORSENS tension physiology

Trap: Imaging trap — the most testable single line: DON'T wait for CXR.

Future alert: Tension PTX = needle first, tube second, imaging never first.

Q34 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Valve replacement — surgical or TAVR

Concept: Severe AS triad and definitive treatment Analysis

Why C: SAD triad (Syncope + Angina + Dyspnea) means severe symptomatic AS; valve area 0.8cm² (<1.0) confirms severe. Once symptoms develop, survival without valve replacement is 2-3 years — replacement (SAVR or TAVR if high-risk) is the treatment.

A) Medical onlyJust delays the inevitable — symptoms drive surgery
B) Balloon valvuloplastyBridge/palliative only — restenoses; that is the MS answer, not AS
D) Diuretics onlySymptom care while the valve strangles output
E) ACEiAfterload reduction is poorly tolerated in severe AS

Trap: Medical-therapy trap — the exam wants you to know symptoms + severe valve = replace.

Future alert: Symptomatic severe AS: 2-3 years without surgery. Replace, do not medicate.

Q35 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Chronic aortic regurgitation

Concept: Chronic AR volume-overload signs Interpretation

Why C: Wide pulse pressure + water-hammer (Corrigan) pulse + de Musset head-bobbing + early diastolic blowing murmur at L3-4ICS, best heard sitting forward in expiration — the full chronic AR constellation.

A) MSDiastolic RUMBLE + opening snap + loud S1 — low-pitched, not blowing
B) ASSystolic ejection murmur radiating to carotids, DELAYED pulses (opposite of bounding)
D) MVPMid-systolic CLICK ± late systolic murmur
E) TRHolosystolic LLSB, louder with inspiration (Carvallo)

Trap: Sign-matching trap — the named signs (Corrigan, de Musset, Quincke, Traube) all point to one valve.

Future alert: Wide pulse pressure + any eponymous pulsing sign = chronic AR.

Q36 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Mitral stenosis — AFib and thromboembolism

Concept: Rheumatic MS recognition and complications Interpretation

Why A: Rheumatic history + opening snap + diastolic rumble + loud S1 = MS (almost always rheumatic, 10-20 year lag). LA enlargement → AFib → thromboembolism — the feared complications.

B) ASSystolic, R 2nd ICS, to carotids
C) AREarly diastolic blowing, no opening snap
D) MVPClick, not an opening snap
E) VSDCongenital, holosystolic LLSB

Trap: Timing trap — childhood rheumatic fever reappearing decades later as MS.

Future alert: Opening snap + apical rumble = MS; watch for AFib and emboli.

Q37 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Knee-chest position and oxygen

Concept: TOF tet spell management Analysis

Why A: Boot-shaped heart + squatting = TOF. The spell cycle: ↑SVR by knee-chest breaks the R→L shunt; then oxygen, morphine, IV fluids, phenylephrine.

B) DigoxinNo role in the acute spell
C) Furosemide↓preload — worsens the R→L shunt
D) AspirinIrrelevant here
E) AntibioticsNo infection in a spell

Trap: Physiology trap — treating the cyanosis as a lung problem when it is a shunt problem.

Future alert: Tet spell: knee-chest → O₂ → morphine → fluids → phenylephrine. Definitive: repair at 6-12 months.

Q38 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Paradoxical embolism

Concept: ASD complications Recall

Why A: The ASD defect lets venous clots cross to the systemic circulation — paradoxical embolism — plus atrial arrhythmias from RA overload.

B) Subaortic stenosisNot an ASD association
C) ARBicuspid valve disease, not ASD
D) CoarctationSeparate congenital lesion; Turner association
E) Never complicatedFalse — arrhythmias and embolism are the reason to close significant shunts

Trap: Benign-bias trap — assuming a "small" ASD means no consequences.

Future alert: ASD = fixed split S2 + paradoxical emboli. Device closure if significant shunt.

Q39 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Indomethacin

Concept: PDA recognition and closure Recall

Why A: Machinery murmur + bounding pulses in a preterm neonate = PDA. Indomethacin/ibuprofen inhibits PGE2 → closes the ductus.

B) Prostaglandin E1The OPPOSITE — PGE1 KEEPS the ductus OPEN (used in duct-dependent lesions)
C) Digoxin aloneDoes not close the ductus
D) Surgery first-lineLigation only if medical therapy fails
E) Wait indefinitelyRisks HF, endocarditis, Eisenmenger

Trap: Direction trap — indomethacin CLOSES, prostaglandin KEEPS OPEN. The exam loves flipping these.

Future alert: Close PDA = indomethacin. Keep ductus open = PGE1.

Q40 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Smoking cessation

Concept: PAD risk-factor hierarchy Interpretation

Why B: Claudication + ABI 0.68 (<0.9) = PAD; the single most important intervention across the disease course is smoking cessation — it beats every drug and procedure in impact.

A) CilostazolSecond-line after lifestyle; contraindicated in HF
C) Angioplasty nowFor lifestyle-refractory or severe/critical disease — not first
D) Aspirin aloneAntiplatelet is part of care but does not address the driver
E) Bypass firstRevascularization is for severe disease/critical limb ischemia

Trap: Pharmacy trap — the exam tempts with drugs when the answer is the cigarette.

Future alert: PAD management ladder starts and ends with smoking cessation at the top.

Q41 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Hypertensive urgency — oral agents, BP reassessment

Concept: Urgency vs emergency line Analysis

Why B: BP >180/120 WITHOUT end-organ damage = urgency. No IV drugs, no ICU — oral agents and reassessment. The absence of findings is the diagnosis.

A) EmergencyRequires end-organ damage — explicitly absent here
C) StrokeNo focal deficits
D) DissectionNo tearing pain, no pulse differential
E) DialysisNormal creatinine

Trap: Number trap — the BP value looks terrifying; the ORGANS decide the answer.

Future alert: >180/120 + no organ damage = oral meds. The exam's favorite distinction.

Q42 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) IV nicardipine or clevidipine in ICU, reduce BP by 10-20% in the first hour

Concept: Hypertensive emergency management Analysis

Why B: >180/120 + encephalopathy = emergency. IV titratable agents (nicardipine/clevidipine, labetalol), ICU monitoring, and a DELIBERATE 10-20% reduction in the first hour — rapid normalization causes hypoperfusion strokes.

A) Oral at homeThat is the urgency pathway — she has encephalopathy
C) Normalize in minutesHypoperfusion → watershed stroke/MI
D) Sublingual nifedipineUncontrollable drop — abandoned for good reason
E) ObservationActive end-organ damage — ICU now

Trap: Speed trap — treating the number fast instead of the organs safely.

Future alert: Emergency: lower 10-20% in hour one. Dissection is the exception — SBP <120 fast.

Q43 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) ACE inhibitors

Concept: ACE-I in bilateral renal artery stenosis Interpretation

Why B: Bilateral RAS kidneys depend on efferent arteriolar constriction (angiotensin II) to hold GFR. ACE inhibition removes that → acute renal failure.

A) MetforminDose-adjust/avoid in significant CKD, but the classic disaster here is the ACE-I
C) StatinsIndicated — atherosclerotic disease
D) AspirinIndicated — vascular protection
E) Beta-blockersNo specific contraindication in RAS

Trap: Indication trap — ACE-I is the BEST drug for unilateral RAS and diabetic CKD, but poisons bilateral RAS.

Future alert: Bilateral RAS + ACE-I = acute renal failure. Check imaging before starting.

Q44 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Staphylococcus aureus

Concept: Endocarditis organism by scenario Analysis

Why B: IVDU → right-sided (tricuspid) endocarditis with S. aureus on a NORMAL valve; CXR nodules are septic pulmonary emboli — the right-sided signature.

A) S. viridansSubacute, left-sided, post-dental, on abnormal valves
C) S. epidermidisEarly prosthetic valve (<60 days), biofilm
D) EnterococcusGU/GI procedures, elderly
E) HACEKCulture-NEGATIVE endocarditis, slow growth

Trap: Organism-context trap — the lifestyle line in the stem IS the microbiology answer.

Future alert: IVDU + tricuspid + lung nodules = S. aureus right-sided IE.

Q45 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: A) Colonoscopy

Concept: S. bovis → colon cancer link Recall

Why A: S. bovis bacteremia is the classic marker for colonic pathology — ALWAYS colonoscopy to exclude colon cancer.

B) DentalS. viridans is the dental bug, not S. bovis
C) CT abscessReasonable for complications but the MANDATORY next step is the colon
D) EGDUpper GI is not the S. bovis association
E) Antibiotics onlyTreats the valve, misses the cancer

Trap: Focus trap — treating the heart while the colon waits.

Future alert: S. bovis in blood = scope the colon. Every time.

Q46 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Continue anticoagulation ≥3 months / indefinite

Concept: Anticoagulation duration by trigger Interpretation

Why B: Unprovoked PE → at least 3 months, commonly indefinite if bleeding risk is low. (Provoked = 3 months; cancer = indefinite.)

A) StopUnprovoked means the trigger is unknown — stopping risks recurrence
C) Warfarin only if cancerBackwards — cancer mandates indefinite, not unprovoked
D) IVC filterOnly if anticoagulation contraindicated or recurrent PE despite adequate Rx
E) AspirinInadequate for secondary PE prevention

Trap: Duration trap — provoked/unprovoked/cancer each carry a different clock.

Future alert: Provoked 3 months. Unprovoked ≥3/indefinite. Cancer indefinite. Memorize the trio.

Q47 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Systemic thrombolysis with tPA

Concept: Massive PE management Analysis

Why B: Hemodynamic instability (BP 82/54) = massive PE → systemic thrombolysis is first-line; untreated mortality >50%, thrombolysis cuts it to ~25%.

A) LMWH aloneCorrect for stable PE — inadequate for massive PE
C) IVC filterPrevention device, not acute rescue; for anticoagulation contraindicated/recurrent
D) AspirinNot PE therapy
E) Embolectomy firstReserved for thrombolysis failure or contraindication

Trap: Stability trap — anticoagulation is for the stable; the unstable get lytics.

Future alert: Massive PE + no contraindication = tPA. Surgery is plan B.

Q48 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) High-intensity statin — no risk calculator needed

Concept: LDL ≥190 statin rule Interpretation

Why B: LDL ≥190 (plus xanthomas/arcus suggesting familial hypercholesterolemia) mandates high-intensity statin directly — the calculator is bypassed entirely.

A) Lifestyle onlyUnder-treatment of a genetic-risk pattern
C) Calculator firstThe calculator exists for the ambiguous middle — 190 skips the queue
D) Ezetimibe firstAdd-on therapy, not first-line
E) PCSK9i firstAfter statin + ezetimibe fail to reach goal

Trap: Calculator trap — reaching for a tool the rule explicitly skips.

Future alert: LDL ≥190 = high-intensity statin, no calculator, no debate.

Q49 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: C) Adenosine 6mg rapid IV push

Concept: Stable SVT stepwise management Analysis

Why C: She is STABLE (BP 118/76, no angina, no pulmonary edema) with a regular narrow-complex tachycardia. The ladder is: vagal maneuvers → adenosine 6mg rapid push (escalate to 12mg ×2) → BB or non-DHP CCB → ablation. Vagal already failed, so adenosine is next.

Discriminator: stability — she is sitting up and talking; the Q27 patient was shocked, this one gets drugs.

A) CardioversionFor UNSTABLE patients (hypotension, angina, pulmonary edema) — she is stable
B) MetoprololConsidered after adenosine fails or for recurrence prevention — not the immediate next step
D) AmiodaroneNot in the narrow-complex SVT pathway — that is VT/wide-complex territory
E) Digoxin loadToo slow for acute termination; reserved for sedentary/HF rate control

Trap: Stability trap in reverse — Q27 was shocked because unstable; this patient gets the drug ladder. Warn her of the 10-second doom feeling; adenosine is contraindicated in asthma.

Future alert: Stable SVT: vagal → adenosine → BB/CCB → ablation. Unstable: shock immediately.

Q50 — Answer & Breakdown

Correct: B) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Concept: Maneuver physiology on murmurs Analysis

Why B: Standing and Valsalva ↓preload → smaller LV cavity → more outflow obstruction → murmur LOUDER. Squatting ↑preload → murmur SOFTER. Add family history of sudden death, exertional near-syncope, LLSB location without carotid radiation, and brisk upstroke — classic HOCM.

Discriminator: the murmur's direction with preload change + absence of carotid radiation.

A) ASOPPOSITE physiology — softer with Valsalva (less forward flow), radiates to carotids, delayed upstroke
C) VSDHolosystolic at LLSB, unchanged by preload maneuvers
D) MVPAlso louder with standing (prolapse earlier), but identified by its mid-systolic CLICK — absent here
E) PSRight-sided — louder with INSPIRATION, pulmonic area, ejection click

Trap: Maneuver trap — AS and HOCM are both harsh systolic LLSB-ish murmurs; the Valsalva direction and carotid radiation separate them.

Future alert: Louder with Valsalva = HOCM or MVP (look for the click). AS gets QUIETER. Sudden death history → HOCM until excluded.

MedCORE Reference

Cardiology

This MedCORE is not a medical textbook. It is only designed for rapid, last-minute recall and should be treated like a high-yield cheat sheet, not a complete learning resource. Use it to memorize critical algorithms and recognition patterns.

MedCORE is an intellectual property of Dr. Ahmad Zafar All rights reserved — 2025