MCQs — Clean Bank
D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
MCQs — Clean Bank
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with progressive memory loss, visual deficit, and cerebral cortex atrophy on CT, along with behavioral changes. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Alzheimer disease B. Korsakoff psychosis C. Pick disease D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
2. A child with seizures shows 3 cps spike-and-wave on EEG. Most likely drug for absence seizures?
A. Ethosuximide B. Phenytoin C. Carbamazepine D. Phenobarbitone
3. A man has right shoulder pain after trauma. Which nerve is injured in anterior shoulder dislocation causing loss of sensation over the shoulder?
A. Musculocutaneous B. Axillary C. Median D. Radial
4. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma?
A. Femur upper end B. Femur lower end C. Tibia upper end D. Tibia lower end
5. Most common site of diverticular disease in older people?
A. Caecum B. Sigmoid colon C. Rectum D. Descending colon
6. A patient with backache, diarrhea, and fatigue; stool shows pear-shaped binucleated structures with 4 pairs of flagella. Drug of choice?
A. Stibogluconate B. Metronidazole C. Sulphadoxine D. Quanidine
7. A young patient at 10 weeks gestation with blue-greenish, malodorous vaginal discharge; microscopy shows a motile pear-shaped organism. Diagnosis?
A. Candida albicans B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Trichomonas D. Giardia
8. An anemic old man with generalized weakness, pancytopenia, petechial rash, pallor, easy bruising, hypocellular bone marrow, and a history of hepatitis. Diagnosis?
A. Aplastic anemia B. Myelofibrosis C. Thalassemia D. Megaloblastic anemia
9. Growth hormone maximum secretion occurs during?
A. Strenuous exercise B. At noon C. In morning D. NREM sleep
10. A 26-year-old man with hepatitis, jaundice, and dark urine. Which enzyme rise indicates hepatocellular damage/necrosis?
A. ALP B. AST C. Cholinesterase D. ALT
11. Cause of splitting of the 2nd heart sound during inspiration?
A. Early closure of aortic valve B. Late closure of pulmonary valve C. Early closure of mitral valve
12. A burn healed into an irregular, enlarged, fibrous, nodular scar extending beyond the wound margins; biopsy shows high collagen and fibroblasts. Diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic scar B. Prominent flesh C. Keloid D. BCC
13. A person ate a burger and fries; centrifuged lipid profile shows milky white color after absorption from enterocytes. In what form are lipids transported to tissue?
A. LDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicron D. HDL
14. A 7-year-old boy develops generalized edema, hypertension, and hematuria after a sore throat treated with antibiotics. Possible cause?
A. ARF B. Renal failure C. UTI D. PSGN
15. A patient arrives 8 hours after an RTA with blood at the external urethral meatus, inability to pass urine, and a palpable bladder. Probable diagnosis?
A. Urethral injury B. Ruptured bladder C. Urethral injury with extravasation of urine in the retroperitoneum D. Anuria due to hypovolemia
16. Extra-pyramidal side effect of antipsychotics?
A. Epilepsy B. Parkinson disease C. Atonia D. Dystonia
17. Warfarin-induced gum bleeding. Which test is important before starting oral anticoagulant (warfarin) and for its monitoring?
A. APTT B. PT C. Platelet count D. ESR
18. Injury at the neck of the radius causes loss of thumb abduction and opposition, laterally rotated thumb, reduced grip, inability to hold a cup, thenar muscle wasting, and sensory loss in the thumb, index, and long finger. Which nerve is damaged?
A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Median nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve
19. An unknown chemical is splashed in the eye, presenting with diffuse conjunctival perfusion and pain. Initial management?
A. Copious irrigation of eye with normal saline B. Wash with 1L sodium bicarbonate C. Slit lamp examination with fluorescein dye D. Patch eye after instilling steroid eye drops
20. What is the most likely diagnosis for a 38-year-old male who was in a road traffic accident, has multiple rib fractures on the right side, reduced breath sounds, a hyperresonant percussion note, and a progressively deteriorating, fatal condition?
A. Flail chest B. Hemothorax C. Open pneumothorax D. Tension pneumothorax
21. A 24-year-old Gravida 3 Para 2+0, previous 1 C-Section at 29 weeks gestation came with complaint of painless PV spotting. Patient complained of having irregular abdominal pain associated with uterine contractions. Abdominal examination renders symphysis-fundal height: 32cm corresponds with gestational age and is longitudinal. Fetal heart sounds: +ve. The placenta is low lying covering os. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chorioamnionitis B. Placenta previa C. Placental abruption D. Vasa Previa
22. A 4-year-old boy is brought in an emergency; he has been bitten by a stray dog on his left arm. The dog ran away after biting. Examination shows an open wound showing lacerated muscles. The wound is thoroughly irrigated with soap and water. What should be the next step in management?
A. Rabies immunoglobulin B. Rabies vaccine C. Rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin D. Tetanus toxoid
23. A miscarriage occurs before which week of pregnancy?
A. 6 week B. 15 week C. 24 week D. 30 week
24. A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of anorexia, vomiting, and central abdominal pain that has since localized to the right iliac fossa. The patient has no urinary symptoms. On examination the patient is restless. The abdomen is soft with rebound tenderness in the right iliac fossa. Rovsing’s sign is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute appendicitis B. Colitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Ureteric Colic
25. Fracture midshaft of humerus (diaphysis fracture), which nerve is at risk of damage?
A. Radial nerve damage B. Axillary nerve damage C. Ulnar nerve damage D. Musculocutaneous damage
26. A 25-year-old man presents with a mass in the groin after heavy lifting. Exam: mass is found just above and medial to the pubic tubercle. It is reducible. Ring occlusion test is positive. On applying pressure on the internal ring, cough impulse is still present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Direct inguinal hernia B. Indirect inguinal hernia C. Femoral hernia D. Strangulated hernia
27. Wheezing, nasal congestion, runny nose, fever every April; symptoms worsen during winter. On physical examination he is afebrile. There is swelling of his nasal passageways, but no other findings. Biopsy of nasal mucosa shows degranulation of?
A. Mast cells B. Basophils C. Eosinophilia D. Monocytes
28. A 5-year-old child, who arrived from Ghana six weeks ago, started to have a fever, vomiting, and neck stiffness two days ago. The child had been on malaria prophylaxis and shows no signs of a rash. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cerebral abscess B. Cerebral malaria C. Meningococcal meningitis D. SAH E. Cerebral tumor
29. A 70-year-old man presented with epigastric pain, hematemesis and tarry black stools (melena) for one day. Past history of episodic epigastric pain that increases after meals for 1 year. On examination he is anemic with an acute episode of hematemesis. Which of the following is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding?
A. Mallory-Weiss tear B. Peptic ulcers C. Oesophageal varices D. Drug induced E. Malignancy
30. What sign indicates gas gangrene, a disease caused by Clostridium perfringens that leads to widespread necrosis?
A. Muscle twitch B. Bad odour C. Crepitus D. Pus formation E. Dryness
31. A 40-year-old woman develops deep vein thrombosis in her right limb on the 5th post-operative day. What should be the main focus of her management?
A. Reassurance and crystalloid infusions B. Complete bed rest and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs C. Compression bandage D. Anticoagulant therapy by heparin and warfarin combination E. Venous thrombectomy
32. An 18-year-old girl experiences vaginal bleeding 14 weeks after her last period and shows signs of early pregnancy. After using tablets to induce an abortion, vaginal examination reveals retained products of conception. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Spontaneous abortion B. Complete abortion C. Incomplete abortion D. Missed abortion
33. At what stage of pregnancy is an ultrasound primarily utilized to detect potential fetal abnormalities during prenatal visits?
A. 12-14 weeks B. 30 weeks C. 16 weeks D. 18-22 weeks E. 26-28 weeks
34. What is a fundamental characteristic of Conversion Disorder?
A. Gait disturbance B. Aphonia C. Sensory loss D. Blindness E. All of the above
35. A 32-year-old male patient presented to surgical emergency after fall from bike. He had a brief loss of consciousness following an accident and recovered. On examination and workup, there is left temporal bone fracture with multiple boggy segments palpable. Few hours later, the patient deteriorated with a decreasing GCS score and appearance of motor deficit. What is your clinical diagnosis?
A. Subdural hematoma B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Extradural hematoma D. Meningitis E. Fracture of the base of the skull
36. A 6-month-old girl has been experiencing distress, crying, abdominal distension, and passing redcurrant jelly stool for 24 hours. The girl also shows signs of dehydration, abdominal distension, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. The rectal examination revealed dark blood. What is her likely diagnosis?
A. Anal fissure B. Meckles diverticulum C. Intussusceptions D. Colonic carcinoma
37. A 22-year-old male presents following a motor vehicle accident. He localizes pain, opens his eyes only to pain, and uses inappropriate words. What is his GCS?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10
38. Upon arriving at the emergency department, a young male is presenting with a stab wound located in his left hypochondrium. He exhibits significant bleeding, tachycardia, hypotension, and bulging neck veins. Additionally, auscultation reveals muffled heart sounds. What condition best fits this presentation?
A. Ruptured lung B. Rupture spleen C. Pericardial tamponade D. Plural rupture E. Pulmonary contusion
39. A 1-year-old female baby with pallor and poor growth, who is not breastfeeding properly and is mainly on goat milk, presents with tachycardia and MCV above normal. What could be the cause of the anemia?
A. Goat milk causes vit B12 deficiency B. Goat milk causes Folate deficiency anemia C. Goat milk causes Iron deficiency D. Anemia due to improper weaning
40. What is the likely diagnosis for a 10-year-old boy with fever, inability to open his mouth, seizures, and a history of a road traffic accident 6 days ago?
A. Meningitis B. Sepsis C. Tetanus D. Botulism
41. Fluid of choice in child with burn <24 hours is?
A. Fresh frozen plasma B. Isolye-P C. Ringer lactate D. Platelet transfusion
42. A child with 10 instances of diarrhea within 24 hours displays signs like dried and sunken eyes, a prolonged skin pinch, and an absence of tears. What should the immediate management entail?
A. ORS solution B. Normal Saline C. Start 10% dextrose D. Start Ringer’s lactate
43. A 77-year-old elderly man has symptoms of poor and intermittent urinary flow. It takes him a few minutes to generate a pressure high enough to start the urine flow. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is firm, smooth without nodules, and enlarged to about two finger breadths. His blood results show: Hemoglobin 129 g/L, PSA 3.2 ng/mL, Urea 11 mmol/L. What is most likely diagnosis?
A. Prostate cancer B. Multiple myeloma C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. Hypertensive nephropathy E. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
44. In a 59-year-old woman with chronic back pain, X-rays of the spine are normal, but bone scans indicate multiple lesions consistent with metastatic disease. What is the most likely origin of the primary cancer?
A. Lungs B. Cervix C. Ovary D. Uterus
45. What is the SINGLE most appropriate advice to give to the mother of a 3-year-old boy diagnosed with febrile seizures regarding the prognosis and the likelihood of other children in the family being affected?
A. Patient has more than 50% chance of further episode of seizure before 6 years of age. B. Patient has more than 50% chance of further episode of seizure after 6 years of age. C. Patient likely to develop epilepsy in future. D. Patient has a 30 to 40% chance of developing another febrile seizure as a child. E. Febrile seizures have no genetic predisposition.
46. In a 53-year-old male patient who has recently undergone a thyroidectomy, what is the most appropriate immediate action to take given the symptoms of increasing shortness of breath, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure, and reduced air entry bilaterally?
A. Cut the subcutaneous sutures B. Adrenaline C. Low molecular weight heparin D. Oxygen 15 L via non-rebreather mask E. Salbutamol Nebulizer
47. Thrush?
A. Occurs only in elderly B. Is caused by a gram -ve bacteria C. Is seen clinically as a proliferative lesion D. Responds to nystatin
48. A patient with sweat chloride test positive for developing recurrent chest infection, otitis media and diarrhea and there is bronchial wall thickening. Pseudomonas was isolated. What is the diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Bronchiectasis C. Emphysema D. ARDS E. Secondary TB F. Cystic fibrosis
49. Abducent nerve innervates?
A. Lateral rectus B. Superior oblique C. Orbicularis oris
50. A 50-year-old female presented in OPD with positive history of breast carcinoma. USG shows lump in breast. Further investigation?
A. FNAC B. Excision C. Biopsy D. Surgery
51. Sacroiliitis seen in?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
52. Child for Leukemia diseases admitted for chemotherapy, developed chicken pox. Preferred treatment of complicated chickenpox is?
A. Interrupt chemo for 2 weeks B. Start acyclovir C. Acyclovir reduces duration and severity of chickenpox in normal children when therapy is initiated during the first 24 hours of rash.
53. Insulin in DKA?
A. Regular B. Regular and glulisine insulin are equally effective during the acute treatment of DKA.
54. Test for Thalassemia?
A. Hb electrophoresis B. CBC C. BM biopsy
55. Which of the following is the most common site for the occurrence of a basal cell carcinoma?
A. Buccal mucosa B. Hard palate C. Skin of the lower lip D. Dorsum of the tongue
56. The cyst that moves by protruding the tongue is?
A. Thyroglossal cyst B. Median rhomboid cyst C. Ranula D. Tracheal cyst
57. What is the most frequent cause of CSF leakage in the middle third of the facial skeleton?
A. Sphenoidal sinus B. Cribriform plate C. Tegmen tympani D. Frontal sinus
58. A mother presents her 3-year-old son to the pediatrician due to concerns about his heart as she senses it’s not normal.
A. DiGeorge syndrome B. Epstein anomaly C. Ectopia cordis D. Tetralogy of Fallot E. Pierre robin syndrome
59. When esophageal sphincter doesn’t relax, this condition is known as?
A. Barret esophagus B. Achalasia C. Deglutition D. Carcinoma
60. Which nerve is susceptible to damage during a Parotidectomy?
A. Facial nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Lingual nerve D. Sub-lingual nerve
61. Where do the fibers responsible for visceral pain end?
A. Substantia nigra B. Substantia gelatinosa C. Substantia innominata D. Substantia pars compacta
62. Failure of rapid alternative movement term?
A. Dysdiadochokinesia B. Static tremor C. Hypertonia D. Rolling tremors E. Synergism
63. Mrs. XY, a 59-year-old woman, is admitted to the hospital with severe chest pain, a sense of heaviness, radiating to her lower jaw and left shoulder. Her Troponin T test is positive. What is likely to be seen on her ECG?
A. Prominent U wave B. P. Pulmonale C. Convex upward ST elevation D. Elevation of PR segment
64. What is the preferred treatment for a patient who presents with shortness of breath and chest pain due to dislocated fractures of the fifth and sixth ribs, a condition known as flail chest?
A. 100% oxygen B. Intubation C. Analgesics D. Both a and b
65. What is a complication associated with hookworms?
A. Hyperglycemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Shock D. None
66. In distinguishing viral meningitis from bacterial meningitis after two days of experiencing neck stiffness, which combination of symptoms is more indicative of the former?
A. Lymphocytosis, normal/slightly elevated glucose B. Lymphocytosis, markedly elevated glucose concentration C. Lymphocytosis, low glucose D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis, normal/elevated glucose E. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis, low glucose
67. A male individual, aged 50 years, has been experiencing epigastric pain for several months, alleviated by antacid consumption. Following a thorough clinical assessment, the lead clinicians recommend a urea breath test. Which bacterium is predominantly responsible for this patient’s condition?
A. Helicobacter pylori B. Proteus mirabilis C. Salmonella typhi D. Serratia marcescens
68. Which of the following is not a synonym for E. coli?
A. Salmonella B. Vibrio cholera C. None
69. A 35-year-old with diagnosed G6PD deficiency received chloroquine treatment for P. vivax infection. Following this, he took a two-week course of a tissue schizontocidal drug and experienced intense hemolysis. Which drug is commonly associated with this effect?
A. Chloroquine B. Mefloquine C. Primaquine D. Doxycycline E. Amodiaquine
70. The plasma concentration of certain medications might elevate when combined with which of the following antiepileptic drugs?
A. Phenobarbital B. Valproic acid C. Phenytoin D. Carbamazepine E. Diazepam
71. A girl of six years experiences moments of gazing and non-communication, with her EEG revealing 3/sec, synchronized spike-wave discharges. Which anti-epileptic drug is most suitable for her?
A. Phenytoin B. Gabapentin C. Primidone D. Ethosuximide E. Carbamazepine
72. A schoolboy diagnosed with a parasitic worm infection is prescribed medication by his doctor that targets nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the worm. What parasite is most likely responsible for his condition?
A. Taenia solium B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Schistosoma mansoni D. None
73. The exemplary disease, characterized by granulomas resulting from infection that must always be ruled out when granulomas are identified, is?
A. Malaria B. Enteric C. Tuberculosis
74. Woman patient bed ridden having dyspnea now developed pulmonary embolism. What is the most common site of origin of thrombotic pulmonary emboli?
A. Lumen of the left ventricle B. Deep leg veins C. Mesenteric D. Superficial leg veins
75. A patient succumbed to a sudden embolic event. Post-death, his family reported a history of compound hip bone fracture. His likely cause of death is?
A. Fat embolism B. Pulmonary embolism C. Atheros embolism
76. A patient arrives in the burn unit, having burns on both front upper extremities, the upper chest, and the front and back of the head. Compute the burn surface area?
A. 36% B. 37% C. 38% D. 40%
77. In a 40-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus (DM) who has a filtration load of glucose of 240 mg and blood glucose of 2mg/ml, what is the clearance of insulin?
A. 120ml/min B. 135ml/min C. 125ml/min D. 140 ml/min
78. Which statement about prolactin is true?
A. Is not secreted till the baby is delivered B. Cause milk ejection C. Level remains persistently higher after the birth of baby D. Cause amenorrhea in many lactating mothers
79. Which of the following complications is more frequent in type I DM?
A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic keto acidosis C. Polyneuropathy D. Cardiovascular diseases E. Cerebrovascular diseases
80. A 40-year-old woman who has given birth multiple times reports unintended urine leakage when she coughs, laughs, lifts objects, or stands up. What condition is indicated by her symptoms?
A. Fistula B. Stress incontinence C. Urge incontinence D. Urethral diverticulum E. Urinary tract infection
81. Man was in an accident, hand injured, no sound heard on left lung, on thoracocentesis air gushed out of left lung due to?
A. Paraseptal emphysema B. Foreign body C. Fistula bronchoesophageal D. Pneumothorax
82. Patient presented in ER, hyperventilating and carpopedal spasms in both hands, injection calcium gluconate given and asked to breathe in bag, condition improved.
A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Renal failure C. Failure of absorption of Ca in gut
83. Test necessary for Anti HCV positive patient before starting treatment?
A. PCR HCV RNA B. USG abdomen C. RFT D. LFT
84. Biopsy of specimen CA showed Papilla, fibrovascular septa, and lamellated, scattered calcifications giving like sand grain appearance. Which tissue most likely it is?
A. Carcinoma in situ B. Carcinoma Breast C. Lung carcinoma D. Colon carcinoma
85. Patient RTA leads to fracture tibia + open femur fracture, BP 60/40, RR-30, PR-120, first-line management?
A. Electrolytes B. I/V inotropic C. Surgical intervention
86. What is the compression rate for neonate resuscitation?
A. 3:1 B. 6:1 C. 9:1
87. A girl presented with non-resting tremors (intention tremors), lesions present in?
A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Substantia nigra D. Pons
88. 6 months pregnant lady with generalized weakness and lethargy present with Hb 9.8, MCV 58, MCHC 15, TIBC increase. How to diagnose the type of anemia?
A. Serum iron B. Serum ferritin C. TIBC D. Ferritin and TIBC E. RDW
89. A 20-year-old obese girl presented in gynae clinic with complain of irregular menstrual cycle for one year followed by amenorrhoea of 3 months. Given the symptoms of BMI >30, with hirsutism, pigmentation in neck, BP 120/70. Her genitalia is well estrogenized. Her serum prolactin is borderline raised and random blood sugar is 200mg%. Ultrasound shows multiple cysts in both ovaries of small size. What is the diagnosis?
A. Polycystic ovarian syndrome B. Metabolic syndrome C. Cushing syndrome D. Addison disease
90. A 4-year-old boy with dark Coca-Cola colored urine, who saw a doctor 10 days ago for a sore throat. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alport’s syndrome B. Goodpasture’s syndrome C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Minimal change disease E. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
91. What is the next step in investigating / tumor marker in a 49-year-old female who has developed chronic liver disease due to a Hepatitis B infection, recently felt unwell, a 3cm space-occupying lesion is found in the right lobe of the liver, and noticed an increase in her Hb level, and who presents with a tender liver?
A. ALP B. SGPT C. Alpha Fetoprotein D. Hepatitis B PCR
92. What is the first-line treatment for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
A. Atropine B. Adrenaline C. Hydrocortisone D. Chlorpheniramine
93. What condition is indicated by the Antral (Holman-Miller) sign?
A. Acoustic neuroma B. Glomus tumour C. Nasopharyngeal fibroma D. Coalescent mastoiditis
94. What is the first medication to be used to manage supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) in a 28-year-old man who is conscious and has a rapid pounding in the chest?
A. Amiodarone B. Adenosine C. Metoprolol D. Lidocaine E. Verapamil
95. The ECG of a 65-year-old individual shows the absence of P waves, a narrow QRS complex, a ventricular rate above 100 bpm. This is highly suggestive of?
A. A-fib B. A-flutter C. SVT D. Mobitz type 1 2nd degree heart block E. Sinus tachycardia
96. A girl after her father passed away now experiencing low mood and anxiety, as well as intrusive memories and flashbacks of past events. She avoids social circle and remains sick most of the times. What condition is she most likely suffering from?
A. Depression B. PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder) C. Panic attack D. Agoraphobia E. GAD
97. A nursing home resident is experiencing rashes between the fingers and on his abdomen, along with severe itching that intensifies during the night. He has been diagnosed with scabies. What is the most effective treatment for this condition?
A. 0.5% permethrin B. Doxycycline C. 5% permethrin D. Reassure E. Acyclovir
98. A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 1-hour history of noisy breathing and foul smelling discharge from nose following mild coryza, and a children’s picnic. He appears well but has a raised respiratory rate and 91% oxygen saturation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anaphylaxis B. Croup C. Foreign body aspiration D. Epiglottitis
99. A 44-year-old man is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. CLO testing performed during the gastroscopy is positive for Helicobacter pylori. What is the most appropriate management to eradicate Helicobacter pylori?
A. Lansoprazole + clindamycin + metronidazole B. Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clindamycin C. Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin D. Omeprazole + amoxicillin + clindamycin E. Omeprazole + penicillin + metronidazole
100. A 53-year-old man presents as his wife has noticed a change in his appearance. He has also noticed his hands seem larger. On examination blood pressure is 170/94 and he is noted to have bitemporal hemianopia. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
A. Pegvisomant B. Trans-sphenoidal surgery C. Bromocriptine D. Octreotide E. External irradiation
101. Active labor has been ongoing for 2 hours, and the fetus is in a brow presentation. How should this situation be managed?
A. Wait for cephalic conversion B. Cord prophylaxis C. Perform a cesarean section D. Physically rotate the face
102. How should hypovolemic shock be managed?
A. Oral antibiotics B. High-dose steroids C. Nebulized bronchodilators D. Intravenous fluids
103. A patient comes to you with pain, redness, and photophobia in the right eye. Examination shows circum-corneal congestion. Which condition is most likely?
A. Blepharitis B. Uveitis C. Bacterial conjunctivitis D. Orbital cellulitis
104. A 30-year-old man experiences indigestion, flatulence, and bloating after consuming milk. Avoiding these products relieves his symptoms. This condition is caused by an individual’s inability to digest which of the following?
A. Fructose B. Lactose C. Maltose D. Mannose
105. Lower limb amputation is followed by complications with crepitations. The reason is?
A. Gas gangrene B. Secondary hemorrhage C. Pseudomonas Infection D. Chlamydia Infection
106. What is the ideal weight gain during pregnancy for a patient with a height of 154 cm and a pre-pregnancy weight of 78 kg?
A. 10 kg B. 6-8 kg C. 10-12 kg
107. A patient presents with wound discoloration and loss of sensation at the site following a cesarean section. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Wound infection B. Endometriosis C. Necrotising fasciitis D. Not hematoma was there
108. For a 41-year-old man with a unilateral cataract and a history of foreign body injuries from his job as an auto mechanic, what is the most suitable diagnostic or therapeutic approach after discovering a color change in the iris and reddish-brown pigment clumps beneath the lens capsule?
A. Test for serum copper level B. Perform a CT scan C. Perform glare testing D. Proceed with phacoemulsification and intraocular lens
109. What primarily contributes to a low ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio in a patient?
A. Increased respiratory rate B. Impaired gas diffusion C. Alveolar hypoventilation D. Elevated pulmonary blood flow
110. Management of DVT in a woman with leg pain and swelling?
A. Loprin + warfarin B. Warfarin C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel
111. An individual presented in the outpatient department suffering from intense epigastric discomfort that extends to the back, accompanied by vomiting a few hours ago. Elevated serum amylase levels were noted. What could be the likely diagnosis?
A. Acute appendicitis B. Acute Pancreatitis C. Gastritis D. Renal colic E. Viral hepatitis
112. After prolonged active hepatitis C, a 50-year-old patient developed ascites and esophageal varices. These complications are secondary to?
A. Cholangitis B. Hepatocellular carcinoma C. Pancreatitis D. Cirrhosis
113. What exits from the stylomastoid foramen?
A. Chorda tympani nerve B. Accessory nerve C. Facial nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Hypoglossal nerve
114. A CKD patient presents to the ER with palpitations. ECG shows ST depression, diminished P wave, widened QRS, and a tall tented sine wave pattern. Most likely electrolyte abnormality?
A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperglycemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperphosphatemia
115. A malformation of the hand or foot resulting in fusion of two or more digits?
A. Polydactyly B. Syndactyly C. Polysyndactyly
116. Antisnake venom administration route?
A. IV B. IM C. SC
117. Contraception of choice for a married woman with 1 child?
A. Norplant B. IUCD C. Condom D. Diaphragm
118. The fetal period extends from?
A. 12th week to term B. 3rd week to 8th week C. 4th week to term D. 5th week to term E. 9th week to term
119. A 28-year-old comatose man presents to the ER with pinpoint pupils, depressed respiration, and no sign of physical trauma. Labs are awaited. He was given IV glucose but did not respond. Most appropriate drug to administer next?
A. Atropine B. Physostigmine C. Naloxone D. Diazepam
120. BMI is calculated with the help of?
A. Age and weight B. Height and age C. Height and weight D. Mid-upper arm circumference and height E. Mid-upper arm circumference and weight
121. In the data 15, 2, 9, 10, 18, 14, and 72, the median is?
A. 10 B. 14 C. 72 D. 15 E. 18
122. One of the following oral hypoglycemic agents helps the diabetic patient by promoting the release of endogenous insulin?
A. Acarbose B. Metformin C. Glipizide D. Pioglitazone E. Miglitol
123. Immunoglobulin which takes part in hypersensitivity reaction, i.e., anaphylactic shock?
A. IgG B. IgE C. IgA D. IgM E. IgD
124. The diet of a child suffering from Maple Syrup Urine Disease should be low in which amino acid content?
A. Branched-chain amino acids B. Phenylalanine C. Methionine D. Tryptophan
125. A patient with pulmonary TB was put on ATT (Rifampicin, INH, Ethambutol, Pyrazinamide). He should be advised to take a supplement for the deficiency of?
A. Niacin B. Pyridoxine C. Riboflavin D. Thiamine
126. Thiazide diuretics caused pain in the big toe due to one of the adverse effects?
A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyperuricemia
127. Screening of disease is a part of?
A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. All of the above
128. Which of the following organisms is responsible for causing infective endocarditis after skin infection?
A. S. aureus B. Strep. viridans C. Haemophilus D. Eikenella E. Kingella
129. What is affected in Horner syndrome?
A. Loss of motor supply B. Excessive sympathetic stimulation C. Excessive parasympathetic stimulation D. Loss of parasympathetic supply E. Loss of sympathetic supply
130. A young male was admitted and diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Conservative treatment was started. On the 10th day he has a pulsatile epigastric mass. Most likely?
A. Pancreatic abscess B. Pseudopancreatic cyst C. Abdominal aneurysm D. Cholecystitis
131. A 19-year-old student presents with a 15-week history of diarrhoea. He has lost 2 kg in weight, and has no recent travel abroad. A smear of a duodenal biopsy reveals many trophozoites. What is the best treatment option?
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Gluten free diet C. Metronidazole D. Prednisolone E. Quinine
132. A 65-year-old female presented with history of progressive solid and liquid dysphagia for 9 months. Associated with vague epigastric abdominal pain after eating. Her labs are all normal except for mild anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Achalasia B. Esophageal web C. Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma D. PUD
133. A 50-year-old patient with DM came with progressive ascites, fever and weight loss for 3 months, SAAG < 1.1. What is the cause?
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy B. Liver Cirrhosis C. Peritoneal Tuberculosis D. Veno-occlusive
134. COPD patient with postherpetic neuralgia for 3 months. Had herpes zoster involving the right posterior thorax in a T7 distribution, treated with antiviral and the lesions healed, but still has persistent severe burning pain. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Gabapentin B. Oxycodone C. Prednisone D. Duloxetine
135. Which of the following is a contraindication for CT Scan?
A. Early Pregnancy B. Anemia C. Metal foreign body D. Pacemaker
136. Fluid of choice in gastric lavage?
A. Normal Saline B. Ringer lactate C. NaCl infusion D. Distilled water
137. Which of the following is investigation of choice for intestinal perforation?
A. XRAY B. MRI C. CT Scan D. Barium Enema
138. …of both white blood cells and larvae. What is the most likely causative agent of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Schistosoma mansoni
139. Which of the following is tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)?
A. Amitriptyline B. Mirtazapine C. Trazodone D. Bupropion
140. A psoas muscle injury is least likely to involve damage to which of the following nerves?
A. Iliohypogastric Nerve B. Femoral Nerve C. Obturator Nerve D. Sciatic Nerve
141. An 18-month-old child presented to ER with history of watery diarrhea for 5 days. Management?
A. Reassure the mother B. Oral rehydration solution C. Intravenous fluids
142. A 9-month-old unimmunized child presented to ER with complaint of cough and… Management?
A. Home care B. Oral antibiotics C. Oxygen therapy D. Intravenous antibiotics
143. At what age Rotavirus vaccine is administered to all infants according to EPI?
A. 6 weeks B. 10 weeks C. 14 weeks D. 18 weeks
144. A woman presents in active labour for the last 2 hours. Vaginal examination… Management?
A. Assisted breech delivery B. Caesarean section C. External cephalic version D. Maintain partogram
145. A young patient presents in ER with history of fall and syncope. Initial management?
A. Airway maintenance B. Cervical spine immobilization C. Control of bleeding D. (option cut off in source)
146. A young patient presents with advanced keratoconus. Which of the following?
A. Contact lenses B. Hard contact lenses C. Penetrating keratoplasty D. Astigmatic glasses
147. A 50-year-old woman with pain, redness and visual loss on second postoperative day. Diagnosis?
A. Acute postoperative glaucoma B. Endophthalmitis C. Retinal detachment D. Anterior uveitis